The client taking NPH insulin at 0800 reports feeling anxious and shaky in the mid-afternoon. Which intervention is best for the nurse to initiate?

Give the client's prn dose of lorazepam

Check the client's fingerstick blood glucose level

Have the client rate the level of anxiety.

Advise the client to sit in a recliner to relax

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Give the client's prn dose of lorazepam: Anxiolytics would mask symptoms and are not the immediate action for suspected hypoglycemia.
B. Check the client's fingerstick blood glucose level: NPH peaks several hours after morning dosing and can cause late-afternoon hypoglycemia; the immediate, appropriate action for anxious/shaky symptoms is to check a capillary glucose.
C. Have the client rate the level of anxiety: Subjective rating alone delays diagnosis -objective glucose check is priority.
D. Advise the client to sit in a recliner to relax: Relaxation does not identify or treat hypoglycemia and could delay urgent glucose correction.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Heparin: Heparin is an anticoagulant (would increase bleeding risk) and is not used to reverse warfarin-induced prolonged PT.
B. Ferrous sulfate: Iron treats iron-deficiency anemia and does not correct an elevated prothrombin time from warfarin.
C. Prednisone: A corticosteroid does not reverse warfarin’s effect on clotting factors.
D. Vitamin K: Vitamin K (phytonadione) is the antidote/reversal agent for warfarin and will help normalize an elevated PT/INR.

Correct Answer is ["21"]

Explanation

Total volume = 1000 mL over 8 hr → mL/hr = 1000 ÷ 8 = 125 mL/hr.

Drops/min = (mL/hr × drop factor) ÷ 60 = (125 × 10) ÷ 60 = 1250 ÷ 60 = 20.833…

Rounded to whole number = 21 gtts/min.

Correct answer: 21 gtts/min.

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The client taking NPH insulin at 0800 reports feeling anxious and shaky in the mid-afternoon. Which intervention is best for the nurse to initiate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking warfarin and has an elevated prothrombin time of 30 seconds. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The physician has ordered an IV infusion of 1000 mL DSW 45% normal saline (NS) to be administered over 8 hours. Tubing drop factor is 10 gtts/ml. How many gtts/min will the nurse administer? (Round answer to whole number: LABEL CORRECTLY)

Correct Answer is ["21"]

Explanation

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