The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims of an automobile accident. Which client has the highest priority for treatment?
A client with an open femur fracture
A client with1+ pedal pulses
A client with bleeding of scalp lacerations
A client with an open chest wound
The Correct Answer is D
A. A client with an open femur fracture: While a femur fracture is serious due to risk of blood loss and fat embolism, it is not immediately life-threatening compared with a compromised airway or chest injury.
B. A client with 1+ pedal pulses: Weak but palpable pedal pulses indicate some distal perfusion. While this requires monitoring, it is not immediately life-threatening compared with a major chest injury.
C. A client with bleeding of scalp lacerations: Scalp lacerations can bleed significantly but are generally controllable with pressure and are not as immediately life-threatening as thoracic injuries.
D. A client with an open chest wound: An open chest wound poses a risk of tension pneumothorax or impaired ventilation, which can quickly become fatal. Airway and oxygenation take priority, making this client the highest treatment priority.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Setting the defibrillator where it will be synchronized to the client's T wave: Synchronization is set to the R wave, not the T wave, to avoid delivering a shock during ventricular repolarization, which could precipitate ventricular fibrillation. Setting the defibrillator to the T wave would be unsafe and is not proper preparation for cardioversion.
B. Synchronizing the defibrillator to the down slope of the P wave: Synchronization to the P wave is incorrect because cardioversion targets ventricular activity, not atrial depolarization. The R wave of the QRS complex is the correct point for synchronization to ensure safe delivery of the shock.
C. Having emergency equipment and oxygen available: Emergency equipment, including a crash cart, airway supplies, and oxygen, must be immediately available in case the client develops life-threatening arrhythmias or requires resuscitation. This preparation ensures safety and rapid intervention if complications arise during the procedure.
D. Allowing the client only clear liquids until the procedure is over: While fasting may be required for sedation, restricting to clear liquids is not the primary preparation focus for cardioversion. The critical priority is ensuring safety and readiness for emergencies, not dietary management immediately before the procedure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Development of third spacing reduces renal perfusion: Large burn injuries cause massive fluid shifts into the interstitial and third spaces due to increased capillary permeability. This reduces circulating blood volume and decreases renal perfusion, creating a risk of shock and acute kidney injury. Large-volume crystalloid resuscitation restores intravascular volume and supports organ perfusion.
B. It is part of the protocol for initial burn management: While fluid resuscitation is indeed part of burn protocols, this option does not explain why fluids are required. The rationale must focus on the pathophysiology of fluid shifts and reduced perfusion.
C. Burn trauma cell damage causes external fluid loss: Although burns cause loss of the skin barrier and some evaporative fluid loss, the primary reason for large-volume replacement is internal fluid shifting (third spacing), not external loss.
D. Crystalloid intravenous fluids are less expensive: Cost is not a clinical reason for choosing the type of fluid for burn resuscitation. The choice is based on safety, evidence-based guidelines, and physiologic needs.
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