The emergency department nurse assesses a client with a head injury. The client lost consciousness at the time of the head injury and then regained consciousness but is now unconscious again.
Which condition does the nurse suspect?
Epidural hematoma.
Concussion.
Skull fracture.
Subdural hematoma.
The Correct Answer is A
Head injuries require rapid assessment of neurological changes to differentiate between various intracranial hemorrhages. This scenario applies knowledge of the classic lucid interval, which is a hallmark clinical presentation specifically associated with arterial bleeding in the intracranial space.
Choice A rationale
An epidural hematoma typically involves an arterial bleed, often the middle meningeal artery. The classic presentation is a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval before rapid neurologic deterioration as the hematoma expands quickly.
Choice B rationale
A concussion is a mild traumatic brain injury characterized by temporary neurological dysfunction without structural damage on imaging. While it involves a transient loss of consciousness, it does not typically present with the classic lucid interval followed by unconsciousness.
Choice C rationale
A skull fracture is a structural break in the cranial bones. While fractures can cause intracranial bleeding, the fracture itself is a skeletal injury and does not describe a specific pattern of alternating consciousness without associated hematoma formation.
Choice D rationale
Subdural hematomas involve venous bleeding between the dura and arachnoid membranes. They typically present with a more gradual decline in consciousness over days or weeks, rather than the rapid lucid interval characteristic of an arterial epidural bleed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Assessment of respiratory patterns in terminal patients involves identifying neurological and metabolic shifts. This scenario requires knowledge of breathing cycles, specifically the crescendo-decrescendo pattern and apnea associated with brainstem dysfunction or advanced heart failure during end-of-life care.
Choice A rationale
Kussmaul respirations involve deep, rapid breathing typically seen in metabolic acidosis. This pattern is a compensatory mechanism to expel excess carbon dioxide, lowering arterial acidity, and is distinct from the cyclic apnea seen in terminal brain injury.
Choice B rationale
Cheyne-Stokes is characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of breathing depth followed by apnea. It occurs due to delayed feedback in the respiratory center, often seen in stroke, traumatic brain injury, or profound heart failure.
Choice C rationale
Biot respirations involve clusters of shallow breaths followed by irregular periods of apnea. This occurs with damage to the medulla oblongata and lacks the rhythmic, gradual increase and decrease in depth seen in the Cheyne-Stokes pattern.
Choice D rationale
Orthopnea is the physical inability to breathe comfortably while lying flat. It is common in congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema, requiring the patient to sit upright to decrease venous return and improve diaphragmatic excursion.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C","dropdown-group-3":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse must identify the client's highest risk factors for perioperative complications. While the client is currently in the preoperative area for a hip arthroplasty due to osteoarthritis, their specific medical history places them at an elevated priority for the development of a Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Total hip arthroplasty is a high-risk procedure for venous thromboembolism (VTE), and this client's history of recurring clots significantly increases the likelihood of a repeat event during or after surgery.
Rationales:
Deep vein thrombosis: This is the priority condition for monitoring and prophylaxis in this scenario. The client has a documented history of DVT on two separate occasions. Surgery, particularly orthopedic surgery on the lower extremities, causes venous stasis and vessel injury, which combined with the client's history, creates a high-risk profile for VTE.
History of DVT: This is a direct indicator of the client's predisposition to venous clotting. Previous episodes of DVT are the strongest predictor for future occurrences, especially when undergoing a major surgery like a total hip arthroplasty that involves significant immobility.
History of multiple DVTs: The fact that the client has a history of two separate DVTs reinforces the priority of this condition. It suggests a chronic or recurring susceptibility to clotting that requires aggressive perioperative management, such as mechanical prophylaxis (sequential compression devices) and pharmacological anticoagulation.
Pulmonary embolus: While a pulmonary embolus is a life-threatening complication of DVT, there is no evidence in the notes (such as acute chest pain or shortness of breath) to suggest it is currently occurring. It is a potential consequence rather than a condition evidenced by the current preoperative notes.
Osteoarthritis flare: While the client has painful hip osteoarthritis, this is the reason for the surgery, not a priority complication to be identified from the medical history for perioperative safety.
GERD exacerbation: The client's GERD is controlled with an antacid PRN. While important for preoperative fasting (NPO) considerations, it is not a priority condition compared to the risk of vascular complications like DVT.
Chest pain and Dyspnea: These are symptoms of an active pulmonary embolism or cardiac event. Neither is mentioned in the 0630 nurses' notes, so they cannot serve as evidence for the client's current status.
Recent surgery: The client is currently preparing for surgery. While past surgeries are noted, "recent surgery" typically refers to the immediate postoperative period as a risk factor, rather than the historical hysterectomy or appendectomy.
Smoking history: While a 52-pack-year history is significant for respiratory and vascular health, the client quit 2 years ago. While it contributes to general risk, it is less specific to the immediate priority of DVT than the direct history of having had multiple clots.
Immobility risk: The client's BMI of 30.1 and the nature of hip surgery contribute to immobility, which is a risk factor. However, the history of previous DVTs is a more specific piece of "evidence" from the notes that points to the priority condition of recurrent DVT.
Anticoagulant use: The notes mention hypertension and cholesterol meds but do not explicitly list current anticoagulant use. If they were on them, it would be a management factor, but it is not listed as evidence in the provided note.
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