The nurse cares for a patient who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. The patient's family asks the nurse how will the diagnosis be confirmed. How should the nurse reply?
"An MRI will show adhesions impairing the outflow of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)."
"The lumbar puncture results will show cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that is cloudy in appearance with raised neutrophils."
"The lumbar puncture results will show cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that has a normal appearance with raised lymphocytes."
"An MRI will identify meninges thickening."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "An MRI will show adhesions impairing the outflow of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF).": MRI may reveal complications such as hydrocephalus or meningeal inflammation but cannot definitively diagnose bacterial meningitis. Adhesions are not a typical finding used to confirm the infection.
B. "The lumbar puncture results will show cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that is cloudy in appearance with raised neutrophils.": Bacterial meningitis is confirmed by analysis of CSF obtained via lumbar puncture. Cloudy CSF indicates high protein content and cellular debris, while a predominance of neutrophils (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) reflects an acute bacterial inflammatory response. CSF glucose is often low and protein elevated, supporting the diagnosis.
C. "The lumbar puncture results will show cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that has a normal appearance with raised lymphocytes.": Normal-appearing CSF with elevated lymphocytes is more consistent with viral (aseptic) meningitis, not bacterial. This finding would not confirm bacterial infection and could mislead diagnosis and treatment.
D. "An MRI will identify meninges thickening.": MRI may show meningeal enhancement in meningitis, but it is nonspecific and cannot distinguish bacterial from viral causes. Definitive diagnosis relies on CSF analysis rather than imaging findings.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Sodium nitroprusside: Sodium nitroprusside is a potent arterial and venous vasodilator used primarily in hypertensive emergencies and acute heart failure. In septic shock, systemic vascular resistance is already profoundly decreased due to inflammatory-mediated vasodilation. Administering a vasodilator would further lower blood pressure and worsen hypoperfusion.
B. Norepinephrine: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock when hypotension persists after adequate fluid resuscitation. It stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors to increase systemic vascular resistance and beta-1 receptors to enhance myocardial contractility. This improves mean arterial pressure and supports organ perfusion in distributive shock states.
C. Regular insulin: Regular insulin is used to manage hyperglycemia, which is common in critically ill patients due to stress-induced insulin resistance. While glucose control is important, insulin does not address the primary hemodynamic instability of septic shock. It has no direct effect on vascular tone or cardiac output in this context.
D. Nitroglycerin: Nitroglycerin is a venous vasodilator that reduces preload and myocardial oxygen demand, typically used in acute coronary syndromes or heart failure. In septic shock with declining blood pressure and cardiac output, reducing preload would further compromise perfusion. Vasopressor support, not vasodilation, is indicated.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client who is out of work and has been experiencing increased stress: Emotional stress can contribute to transient increases in sympathetic activity, which may precipitate palpitations or arrhythmias in susceptible individuals. However, stress alone is not the strongest risk factor for sustained atrial flutter.
B. The client who is recovering from recurrent illness that caused vomiting and diarrhea: Electrolyte imbalances from vomiting or diarrhea (e.g., hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia) can trigger arrhythmias. While this increases risk temporarily, it is generally less significant than structural heart disease or myocardial injury.
C. The client whose mother and uncle were diagnosed with the same condition: A family history may indicate genetic susceptibility to some arrhythmias. However, atrial flutter is primarily associated with acquired heart disease rather than hereditary factors, so this patient is at moderate rather than highest risk.
D. The client who had a myocardial infarction and required stent placement: Myocardial infarction causes structural and electrical remodeling of atrial tissue, creating reentry circuits that predispose the patient to atrial flutter. This post-MI population has the highest risk among the options due to direct cardiac injury and conduction pathway disruption.
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