The nurse is assessing a client who is unsatisfied with the results of two previous cosmetic surgeries and wants to have another surgery to correct the perceived flaws. What is the best response on the part of the nurse?
Convince the client that the current look is normal
Assess the client for body dysmorphic disorder
Explain to the client that no further change is possible.
Refer the client to another cosmetic surgeon
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Attempting to convince the client that their current physical appearance is normal is a non-therapeutic and clinically ineffective response. Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) involves a distorted cognitive perception of one's own appearance that is resistant to external reassurance, logical argumentation, or evidence to the contrary. The preoccupation in BDD is neurobiologically driven, involving dysfunction in visual processing areas and obsessive-compulsive neural circuitry. Simply asserting that the client looks normal will not alter the underlying perceptual distortion and may increase frustration and distrust of healthcare providers, while delaying appropriate psychiatric evaluation and intervention.
Choice B reason: Assessing the client for body dysmorphic disorder is the most clinically appropriate and evidence-based nursing response. The clinical scenario describes a pattern highly characteristic of BDD: persistent dissatisfaction with physical appearance following multiple cosmetic procedures, preoccupation with perceived flaws that are either minimal or not visible to others, and a compulsive desire for additional corrective surgeries. BDD is classified in the DSM-5 under obsessive-compulsive and related disorders and is associated with a compulsive pattern of seeking surgical and cosmetic procedures. Nurses and healthcare providers must screen for BDD before additional procedures are pursued, as surgery does not resolve the underlying disorder and may worsen the clinical picture.
Choice C reason: Explaining to the client that no further change is possible is factually inaccurate, potentially deceptive, and does not address the underlying psychiatric concern. Further cosmetic surgery is physically possible, and informing the client otherwise would constitute a lack of informed consent and honest communication. More importantly, this response fails to recognize or address the possibility that the client's repeated dissatisfaction with surgical outcomes may reflect a psychiatric disorder requiring assessment and treatment rather than a surgical problem requiring additional intervention. This response therefore both misleads the client and misses a critical clinical opportunity.
Choice D reason: Referring the client to another cosmetic surgeon without first assessing for body dysmorphic disorder would potentially facilitate a pattern of surgical seeking that is harmful to the client and ethically problematic. Individuals with BDD who undergo cosmetic surgery typically do not experience sustained satisfaction with outcomes and frequently present for additional procedures with ongoing or heightened preoccupation with perceived flaws. Research indicates that surgical intervention does not improve BDD symptomatology and may worsen the obsessive preoccupation and functional impairment. The appropriate clinical response before any surgical referral is comprehensive psychiatric assessment, including screening for BDD and other comorbid conditions such as major depressive disorder and OCD.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Physiologic needs represent the most basic tier of Maslow's hierarchy of needs and include requirements such as nutrition, hydration, rest, thermoregulation, and elimination. While these are foundational to human survival and must be addressed in the overall management of a manic episode, particularly given that clients in mania may neglect eating, sleeping, and self-care due to psychomotor agitation and distractibility, physiologic needs do not supersede the immediate priority of safety. In the acute phase of a manic episode with associated impulsivity and risk of harm, safety is the foremost clinical concern that must be addressed first.
Choice B reason: Social needs pertain to the human need for belonging, interpersonal connection, and meaningful relationships, occupying the 3rd tier of Maslow's hierarchy. During an acute manic episode, clients typically exhibit disinhibited social behavior, pressured speech, grandiosity, and excessive involvement in social activities, making social needs far from a deficit in the immediate clinical context. Furthermore, social needs are not an acute clinical priority when a client's safety is at risk. Addressing social needs appropriately comes after physiological and safety needs have been secured in the nursing care hierarchy.
Choice C reason: Security, which encompasses the need for physical safety, environmental predictability, and freedom from threat, constitutes the 2nd tier of Maslow's hierarchy. While security and safety are conceptually closely related, in the specific clinical context of an acute manic episode with impulsive and potentially dangerous behavior, safety — defined as freedom from immediate physical harm to self or others — takes the most direct clinical precedence. Security refers more broadly to stability and freedom from fear, whereas safety in this context addresses acute risk of harm resulting from manic behavioral dysregulation, grandiosity, and impulsivity.
Choice D reason: Safety is the overriding nursing priority during an acute manic episode in a client with bipolar disorder. Mania is associated with significantly impaired judgment, psychomotor agitation, impulsivity, reckless behavior, diminished sleep, hypersexuality, and in some cases, irritability-driven aggression. These features create substantial and immediate risk for self-injury, accidental harm, and violence toward others. Per nursing care priority frameworks and psychiatric-mental health nursing standards, safety must be ensured before any other therapeutic goals are pursued. This aligns with both Maslow's hierarchy and the principles of safe psychiatric nursing practice.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Gastrointestinal influenza (gastroenteritis) is characterized by nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and fever, mediated primarily by gastrointestinal mucosal inflammation secondary to viral infection. While some somatic symptoms of anxiety, such as nausea and abdominal discomfort, may overlap with gastrointestinal disturbance, the hallmark somatic features of a panic attack — which include chest pain, palpitations, dyspnea, diaphoresis, and paresthesias — are not characteristic of gastroenteritis. The clinical overlap between panic attacks and gastroenteritis is minimal and does not represent the primary diagnostic confusion encountered in emergency settings.
Choice B reason: Appendicitis presents with characteristic right lower quadrant pain (McBurney's point tenderness), rebound tenderness, fever, nausea, vomiting, and an elevated white blood cell count indicating an acute inflammatory process. While abdominal discomfort can occasionally accompany severe anxiety, the clinical features of an acute appendiceal inflammation are anatomically and physiologically distinct from the cardiovascular and neurological symptoms of a panic attack. Panic attacks are not associated with the localized somatic signs and systemic inflammatory response that define appendicitis, making this comparison clinically inaccurate.
Choice C reason: While stroke (cerebrovascular accident) can present with neurological symptoms such as numbness, tingling, dizziness, and in some cases, confusion, which may superficially overlap with paresthesias and derealization experienced during a panic attack, the core distinguishing features of stroke — focal neurological deficits, unilateral weakness, facial drooping, aphasia, and vision disturbances — are not characteristic of panic attacks. Additionally, while panic attacks can cause cerebral symptoms due to hyperventilation-induced hypocapnia and cerebral vasoconstriction, the degree of similarity between the 2 presentations does not rise to the level of clinical mimicry seen with myocardial infarction.
Choice D reason: The physical symptoms of a panic attack closely and convincingly mimic those of an acute myocardial infarction, making this the correct and clinically most significant comparison. During a panic attack, activation of the sympathoadrenal axis produces marked cardiovascular and somatic symptoms including chest tightness, chest pain, tachycardia, palpitations, diaphoresis, dyspnea, and a profound sense of impending doom or death. These symptoms are phenomenologically indistinguishable from those of an acute MI in the absence of objective cardiac testing. This overlap is a major reason why a significant proportion of clients experiencing their first panic attack present to emergency departments fearing cardiac arrest, making cardiac pathology the primary differential diagnosis that must be excluded.
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