The nurse is assessing the breast of a woman who is 1 month postpartum. The woman reports a painful area on the left breast, a temperature of 38.2°C, and malaise. The nurse notes a local area on the same breast to be red and warm to touch.
The nurse calls the healthcare provider to report which suspected issue?
Mastitis.
Plugged milk duct.
Unilateral engorgement.
Breast yeast infection.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The constellation of symptoms—localized painful area, redness, and warmth on one breast, accompanied by systemic signs of fever (>38.0°C or 100.4°F) and malaise (general discomfort or uneasiness)—is the classic clinical presentation of mastitis. This condition is typically a bacterial infection (often Staphylococcus aureus) of the breast tissue, commonly occurring 2-4 weeks postpartum, often related to nipple damage or incomplete milk drainage.
Choice B rationale
A plugged milk duct presents as a painful, localized, firm lump or area of fullness in the breast, but it is characteristically not accompanied by systemic signs of fever or malaise. It represents simple mechanical obstruction without the inflammatory response or generalized symptoms indicative of a progressing bacterial infection like mastitis.
Choice C rationale
Unilateral engorgement is highly unlikely at 1 month postpartum; engorgement is common in the immediate postpartum period as milk production first initiates. While it involves a feeling of fullness and firmness, it lacks the intense localized redness, significant pain, and systemic signs (fever, malaise) characteristic of a bacterial infection.
Choice D rationale
A breast yeast infection (candidiasis) typically presents with intense, burning nipple pain that can radiate into the breast, often described as "stabbing," and sometimes a shiny, peeling appearance of the nipple. While it can cause discomfort, the classic presentation usually lacks the pronounced localized area of warmth and redness on the breast tissue itself and the high systemic fever seen in mastitis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placing a rolled towel under the client's knees might slightly tilt the pelvis but is insufficient to effectively relieve the pressure of the presenting fetal part on the prolapsed umbilical cord. The primary goal in a cord prolapse is to prevent umbilical artery compression, which quickly leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia due to compromised blood flow, and a rolled towel under the knees doesn't achieve the necessary change in maternal position to shift the fetus off the cord.
Choice B rationale
While immediately notifying the obstetric health care provider (HCP) is a critical step in managing cord prolapse, it is not the absolute priority over direct physical intervention to protect the fetus. The scientific rationale for prioritizing pressure relief is the immediate threat of profound fetal hypoxemia and acidemia from cord compression, which can cause irreversible brain damage or death within minutes, necessitating an immediate hands-on maneuver.
Choice C rationale
Administering high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask (10-12 L/min) is a standard intervention for fetal distress, aiming to increase the maternal partial pressure of oxygen (P_O_2) and subsequently enhance oxygen transfer across the placenta to the fetus. However, its effectiveness is secondary to relieving the direct mechanical compression of the umbilical cord, which is the immediate cause of the deceleration and hypoxia.
Choice D rationale
Positioning the client into a position like Trendelenburg (head down, feet up) or knee-chest (hands and knees, chest on the bed) uses gravity to displace the fetus upward and away from the cervix, thereby relieving the pressure on the prolapsed umbilical cord. This action immediately restores umbilical blood flow, which is the critical first step to reversing fetal bradycardia and hypoxia caused by cord compression.
Choice E rationale
Preparing the client for an immediate delivery, often via emergency Cesarean section (C-section), is the ultimate treatment for a non-reassuring fetal status secondary to cord prolapse, but it requires preparatory steps and time. Positioning for pressure relief (Choice D) and manual elevation of the presenting part (if necessary) are the immediate, life-saving measures performed before or concurrent with preparation for rapid delivery.
Choice F rationale
Encouraging the client to push with the next contraction would be contraindicated and detrimental. The action of pushing would increase intra-abdominal pressure and directly force the presenting fetal part down onto the prolapsed cord, leading to maximal compression of the umbilical artery and vein. This would cause severe, sustained fetal bradycardia and hypoxemia, dramatically increasing the risk of fetal demise or severe injury.
Choice G rationale
Applying sterile gauze soaked in normal saline to the exposed cord helps to prevent drying of the Wharton's jelly and umbilical vessels, which minimizes vasospasm and maintains blood flow until delivery. Although important for cord preservation, this intervention is secondary to the immediate mechanical relief of compression (Choice D), which addresses the acute life-threatening fetal compromise from lack of blood flow.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Step 1 is: The standard initial management for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is fundal massage and the administration of the uterotonic drug oxytocin. Since the client's hemorrhage is unresponsive to these, a second-line uterotonic is required. Methylergonovine (Methergine) is a potent uterotonic that directly stimulates smooth muscle contraction.
Step 2 is: Methylergonovine is typically administered intramuscularly (IM) as a 0.2 mg dose. The IM route provides reliable absorption and rapid onset of action (2-5 minutes). The medication is contraindicated in clients with hypertension or preeclampsia due to its potent vasoconstrictive properties, which can cause dangerous blood pressure elevation.
Step 3 is: The nurse must check the client's blood pressure before administration, with a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or less often being a required threshold for safe use. The second most critical assessment is urine output (normal range is ≥ 30 mL/h) to assess for signs of hypovolemic shock or renal perfusion compromise, which are important considerations in active hemorrhage.
Step 4 is: Choice B states to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg intramuscularly if her urine output is less than 50 mL/h. The IM dose and route are correct, but the rationale regarding urine output is incorrect; low urine output is a sign of worsening PPH and not a condition for administering methylergonovine. Choice B must be a typo in the question or options. Choice C offers the correct contraindication (BP below 140/90) for the IV route which is correct for severe hemorrhage although IM is more common. Choice B is the most plausible answer provided in the context of advanced PPH management despite the flaw in the rationale's condition, as it uses the correct dose and route.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
