The nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. The client’s latest laboratory testing shows a prolonged prothrombin time. For what assessment finding would the nurse monitor:
Pressure injury.
Deep vein thrombosis.
Jaundice.
Hematemesis
The Correct Answer is D
The liver is the primary site for the synthesis of nearly all clotting factors, including the vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, and X). In cirrhosis, the destruction of hepatocytes leads to a profound deficiency in these proteins, manifested as a prolonged prothrombin time (PT/INR). This coagulopathy, combined with thrombocytopenia from splenic sequestration, puts the patient at extreme risk for spontaneous and life-threatening gastrointestinal hemorrhage.
Rationale:
A. While patients with cirrhosis are at risk for pressure injuries due to malnutrition and edema, a prolonged prothrombin time does not directly increase the risk of skin breakdown. Pressure injuries are primarily a result of immobility and poor tissue perfusion. Coagulopathy is a hematologic failure that specifically predisposes the patient to bleeding rather than cutaneous ulceration.
B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a clotting disorder, which is the opposite of the bleeding risk indicated by a prolonged prothrombin time. A high PT means the blood takes longer than normal to clot, making the formation of a venous thrombus less likely compared to a healthy individual. The nurse's priority is monitoring for excessive bleeding, not excessive clotting.
C. Jaundice is a sign of impaired bilirubin metabolism and is an expected finding in cirrhosis, but it is not directly caused by a prolonged prothrombin time. While both symptoms result from liver failure, they represent different functional deficits (pigment excretion vs. protein synthesis). Jaundice is not an acute, life-threatening manifestation of a high prothrombin time.
D. The nurse must monitor for hematemesis (vomiting blood) because a prolonged prothrombin time indicates a severe bleeding risk. In cirrhosis, this is often compounded by esophageal varices caused by portal hypertension. A patient with poor clotting ability who develops a variceal bleed can quickly exsanguinate, making the detection of GI bleeding the highest clinical priority.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
An enterocutaneous fistulainvolves an abnormal connection between the bowel and the skin, allowing caustic intestinal contents to leak externally. These secretions contain proteolytic enzymesand bile salts that cause rapid excoriationand full-thickness skin breakdown. Meticulous pouching and barrier protection are vital to maintain skin integrity and prevent localized secondary infections or pain.
Rationale:
A.Antibiotic administration is often necessary to treat associated abscesses or systemic infection in Crohn disease. However, it does not address the immediate mechanical damage caused by draining intestinal fluids. While infection control is important, the physical destruction of the skin barrier occurs much more rapidly and requires immediate topical intervention and containment.
B.A low-fiber diet is used to reduce bowel stimulation and decrease the volume of stool, which can indirectly reduce fistula drainage. This is a supportive dietary management strategy rather than a priority acute intervention. It does not provide immediate protection for the tissues already being exposed to the high-output drainage from the fistula tract.
C.Skin protection is the priority action because fistula drainage is highly corrosive to the epidermal layer. Intestinal enzymes can digest the skin within hours, leading to severe pain and large areas of denuded tissue. The nurse must implement aggressive barrier therapy or wound drainage systems to prevent skin failure and maintain a dry, protected peri-fistular area.
D.Intravenous glucocorticoids are used to reduce the systemic inflammation associated with a Crohn's flare. While this treats the underlying disease, steroids can actually impair wound and fistula healing by inhibiting fibroblast activity. Consequently, they are not the immediate priority when managing the localized, destructive effects of a high-output draining fistula on the skin.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Cholelithiasisinvolves the presence of gallstones within the gallbladder. Symptom management focuses on preventing gallbladder contraction, which occurs when cholecystokinin is released in response to the presence of fats in the duodenum. A diet low in saturated fatsis essential to minimize biliary colic and reduce the risk of stones becoming lodged in the cystic or common bile duct.
Rationale:
A.Cream of potato soup and Caesar salad are both high in fat content due to the heavy cream and oil-based dressings used in their preparation. These fats would trigger the release of cholecystokinin, leading to painful gallbladder contractions. This selection indicates a failure to understand the need to avoid high-fat triggers in the management of gallstones.
B.Lasagna is typically high in fat due to large amounts of cheese and ground meat. Italian dressing, while often oil-based, and lasagna together represent a significant fat load that would likely cause symptomatic distress. While low-fat milk is a better choice, the main course makes this menu selection inappropriate for someone with symptomatic cholelithiasis.
C.Roasted chicken breast (skinless) and a baked potato with chives represent a low-fat mealthat is least likely to stimulate the gallbladder. By avoiding butter, sour cream, and fried preparations, the patient minimizes the stimulus for bile release. This selection demonstrates a clear understanding of the dietary modifications required to prevent biliary colicepisodes.
D.A grilled cheese sandwich and coffee with cream are both high in animal fats and dairy lipids. Grilling bread in butter and using full-fat cheese are major triggers for gallbladder pain. This menu choice would likely lead to an acute episode of right upper quadrant pain, indicating that the patient does not yet understand the fat-restriction requirements.
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