The nurse is caring for a client with severe bleeding from a wound. Which of the following intravenous solutions would the client most likely receive initially?
5% Dextrose in water
Lactated Ringer's solution
45% Normal Saline
33% Normal Saline
The Correct Answer is B
A. Dextrose 5% in water (D5W) is a hypotonic solution once dextrose is metabolized. It primarily provides free water for cellular hydration but does not expand intravascular volume effectively, making it inappropriate for acute blood loss.
B. Lactated Ringer’s (LR) is an isotonic crystalloid that closely resembles plasma electrolyte composition. It is ideal for rapid intravascular volume replacement in clients with acute hemorrhage, helping to restore blood pressure and perfusion until blood products can be administered.
C. This solution is hypotonic (0.45% NaCl) and will shift into cells rather than remain in the vascular space. It is not suitable for initial resuscitation of a hemorrhaging client, as it does not adequately expand circulating volume.
D. There is no standard 33% saline solution used in clinical practice. Hypotonic saline solutions are not used for acute volume replacement in severe bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The Rapid Shallow Breathing Index (RSBI) is calculated as the ratio of respiratory rate to tidal volume (in liters). An RSBI <105 is generally considered favorable for weaning. A value of 85 indicates the patient is breathing efficientlyand may be ready to wean.
B. Negative inspiratory force measures inspiratory muscle strength. Values more negative than -20 to -30 cm H2O are considered adequate. A NIF of -28 cm H2O indicates sufficient inspiratory strengthfor spontaneous breathing.
C. A tidal volume ≥5 mL/kg is generally acceptable for weaning. A value of 6 mL/kg indicates adequate ventilationduring spontaneous breathing trials.
D. A FiO2 >40% to maintain adequate oxygen saturation indicates ongoing oxygenation impairment, suggesting the client may not yet be ready for weaning. Successful weaning usually requires an FiO2 ≤40% and PEEP ≤5 cm H2O to maintain SpO2 ≥90–92%, ensuring the lungs can sustain oxygenation without excessive support.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, the client is showing signs of septic shock(hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypoxemia). Antibiotics alone will not immediately stabilize the patient’s circulatory compromise. Early fluid resuscitation takes priority to restore perfusion.
B. Blood cultures are necessary for guiding antibiotic therapy and identifying pathogens, but obtaining labs does not address the immediate hemodynamic instability. Delaying resuscitation while awaiting lab results can worsen organ perfusion.
C. Catheterization may be useful for monitoring urine output, which reflects perfusion, but it is not the first intervention. Immediate stabilization of blood pressure and circulation takes precedence.
D. The client’s low blood pressure (92/44), tachycardia (HR 134), tachypnea (RR 26), and hypoxemia (SpO2 90%)indicate septic shock with hypoperfusion. Rapid IV fluid administration (usually isotonic crystalloids) is the priority interventionto restore circulating volume, improve tissue perfusion, and prevent progression to multi-organ dysfunction.
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