The nurse is caring for a large-for-gestational-age infant born to a client with diabetes mellitus.
What is the priority when assessing this infant?
Monitor the infant's blood glucose every six hours for 24 hours.
Monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Explain the effects of maternal hyperglycemia on the baby to the parents.
Estimate the amount of calories to provide the infant through supplemental formula.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Monitoring blood glucose every six hours is insufficient for a high-risk neonate. Due to the sudden cessation of high maternal glucose supply and persistently high fetal insulin levels, the infant is at risk for rapid drops in glucose, requiring monitoring as frequently as every 1 to 3 hours initially.
Choice B rationale
High maternal glucose levels lead to fetal hyperglycemia and subsequent pancreatic beta-cell hyperplasia and hyperinsulinemia in the infant. After birth, the maternal glucose supply is cut off, but the hyperinsulinemia persists, rapidly driving the infant's blood glucose down, making hypoglycemia the most immediate, life-threatening risk.
Choice C rationale
While parent education is an important long-term goal, it is not the priority over immediate physiological assessment and intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition like hypoglycemia. Explanations should follow stabilization of the infant's vital parameters.
Choice D rationale
Estimating caloric needs is part of the overall care plan, but the priority is to identify and prevent the acute metabolic complication of hypoglycemia. Glucose monitoring and appropriate feeding or intravenous dextrose are the immediate interventions for prevention and treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While the amount of blood loss is critical for determining the severity of the hemorrhage and the need for immediate treatment, it is not the priority assessment before administering methylergonovine. The amount of blood loss determines the need for the drug, but the blood pressure determines its safety before administration. Methylergonovine is a potent vasoconstrictor and must be used cautiously in clients with elevated blood pressure to prevent hypertensive crisis or stroke.
Choice B rationale
Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid that acts as a potent vasoconstrictor and uterine stimulant. Its primary side effect and contraindication are hypertension and preeclampsia. Because the drug dramatically increases systemic vascular resistance, it can cause a sudden, severe elevation in blood pressure. Therefore, checking the blood pressure is the priority assessment to ensure the client's pressure is within safe limits before administration, preventing potential complications like stroke.
Choice C rationale
Although a change in the level of consciousness (LOC) could indicate hypovolemic shock from severe blood loss or a hypertensive emergency, it is a secondary finding. The primary, direct, and modifiable risk associated with methylergonovine administration is its potential to cause acute, severe hypertension. Checking the client's baseline blood pressure (Choice B) is the specific, essential safety check before administering this vasoconstrictive medication.
Choice D rationale
The uterine tone or atony is the indication for the medication; the client is already diagnosed with uterine atony (flaccid uterus) causing the hemorrhage. The medication's purpose is to contract the uterus (increase tone). The priority before administration, however, is to assess the client for contraindications or serious adverse reaction risks. The potent vasoconstrictive effect on peripheral arteries makes blood pressure (Choice B) the most critical pre-administration safety assessment.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uterine atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage, resulting in significant blood loss and hypovolemia. Increasing intravenous fluid replacement with crystalloid solutions (e.g., normal saline or lactated Ringer's) is critical to restoring circulating blood volume, maintaining hemodynamic stability, and preventing hypovolemic shock.
Choice B rationale
A full bladder can displace the uterus and impede its ability to contract effectively, contributing to or worsening uterine atony. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Foley catheter) ensures continuous bladder drainage and decompression, allowing the uterus to move into its proper place and contract more effectively.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) is primarily an assessment for magnesium sulfate toxicity in clients being treated for preeclampsia or eclampsia. While relevant in those specific conditions, it is not a direct intervention for managing the immediate effects or cause of postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. Normal DTR response is 2+.
Choice D rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential for determining the severity of the hemorrhage and the efficacy of interventions. Initiating a peri-pad count and accurately weighing the pads provides a reliable, though often underestimated, measure of blood loss, guiding the need for additional fluids, blood products, or uterotonic medications.
Choice E rationale
Uterine atony is a failure of the uterine muscle to contract and compress the blood vessels at the placental site. Performing a fundal massage stimulates the myometrium to contract, thereby physically compressing the vessels and activating the natural physiological mechanisms to stop the bleeding; this is a primary, initial intervention.
Choice F rationale
Tocolytic therapy, such as terbutaline or nifedipine, works by relaxing the uterine muscle, which is used to stop preterm labor. In the context of uterine atony, the goal is to contract the uterus, so administering tocolytic therapy would be contraindicated as it would worsen the atony and accelerate blood loss.
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