The nurse is caring for several pregnant clients at an obstetrics (OB) clinic.
For which client should the nurse prioritize in requesting a glucose tolerance test?
An 18-year-old primigravida client with a BMI of 17.
A client who has a sister-in-law with Type 1 diabetes.
A client with a BMI of 29 who had a newborn weighing 8 lbs.
A 36-year-old client with a history of gestational diabetes.
The Correct Answer is D
Identifying risk factors for gestational diabetes is vital for early screening and intervention. Knowledge of maternal history, body mass index, and previous pregnancy outcomes must be applied to determine which client requires the most urgent or prioritized glucose tolerance testing.
Choice A rationale
A BMI of 17 indicates the client is underweight, which is not a primary risk factor for gestational diabetes. Advanced maternal age or obesity are higher indicators. Younger primigravida status generally presents a lower risk for glucose intolerance.
Choice B rationale
Having a sister-in-law with diabetes is irrelevant to the client’s genetic risk. Only first-degree blood relatives, such as parents or siblings, contribute to the hereditary risk profile for developing gestational diabetes or type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Choice C rationale
A BMI of 29 is overweight but not obese, and an 8 lb baby is within the normal weight range. Macrosomia is usually defined as over 8.8 lbs or 4000 g, making this history less concerning than a prior diagnosis.
Choice D rationale
A prior history of gestational diabetes is one of the strongest predictors for recurrence in subsequent pregnancies. Because this client is also 36, her age and history significantly increase the likelihood of impaired glucose metabolism requiring early screening..
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This prenatal scenario involves applying knowledge of human embryology and fetal development stages. Identifying the specific terminology and physiological milestones at 6 weeks gestation is necessary to provide accurate education regarding the transition from the pre-embryonic to the embryonic period.
Choice A rationale
A blastocyst refers to the stage of development approximately 5 to 10 days after fertilization, during implantation. By 6 weeks gestation, the pregnancy has progressed significantly past this initial pre-embryonic stage of germ layer formation.
Choice B rationale
At 6 weeks gestation, the product of conception is called an embryo. This period, spanning weeks 3 through 8, is characterized by rapid organogenesis, where all major organ systems are established and highly vulnerable to teratogens.
Choice C rationale
The term fetus is used starting at the ninth week of gestation until birth. While the embryo is developing human characteristics at 6 weeks, it is not yet classified as a fetus in medical terminology.
Choice D rationale
A morula is a solid ball of cells that exists around day 3 or 4 after fertilization as it travels through the fallopian tube. This stage occurs long before the 6-week prenatal visit..
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The assessment of postpartum hemorrhage requires differentiating between uterine atony and other sources of bleeding. When the fundus remains firm despite heavy lochia saturation, nurses must apply knowledge of cervical or vaginal lacerations and prioritize immediate medical notification for intervention.
Choice A rationale
Fundal massage is the primary intervention for uterine atony, characterized by a soft or boggy uterus. Since the assessment reveals a firm fundus at the umbilicus, massage is unnecessary and will not address the source of the bleeding.
Choice B rationale
Satiating a pad in 15 minutes is a sign of severe postpartum hemorrhage. A firm fundus suggests the bleeding is likely from a laceration rather than atony. Rapid notification of the provider is essential for surgical repair.
Choice C rationale
Oxytocin is a uterotonic medication used to stimulate uterine contractions and manage hemorrhage caused by atony. Because the fundus is already firm, administering oxytocin is inappropriate and will not resolve bleeding originating from a suspected tissue tear.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the client to the restroom helps empty the bladder, which can resolve a displaced, boggy fundus. However, with a firm fundus and rapid blood loss, this delays critical care and poses a fainting risk for the client.
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