The nurse is instructing a client who is newly prescribed psyllium. What information will the nurse include when teaching this client?
The importance of consuming adequate amounts of fluids.
The onset of action is 30 to 60 minutes after administration.
The need to monitor for hypoglycemia.
The medication is best taken at bedtime.
The Correct Answer is A
. The importance of consuming adequate amounts of fluids: Adequate fluid intake is essential when taking psyllium to prevent the formation of a thick, obstructive gel in the throat or intestines. Insufficient fluids may lead to esophageal or bowel obstruction, especially in older adults.
B. The onset of action is 30 to 60 minutes after administration: Psyllium typically takes 12 to 72 hours to produce a bowel movement. It works by absorbing water into the stool to increase bulk, and its action is not immediate.
C. The need to monitor for hypoglycemia: Psyllium may mildly lower blood glucose levels, particularly in patients with diabetes. However, routine hypoglycemia monitoring is not usually necessary unless the client is on antidiabetic medications and symptomatic.
D. The medication is best taken at bedtime: Psyllium should be taken with meals or right after meals, not at bedtime, to promote regular bowel movements. Taking it before bed may delay its effectiveness and increase the risk of gastrointestinal discomfort or obstruction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Naloxone: Diphenoxylate is an opioid derivative used to treat diarrhea, and naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses its central nervous system and respiratory depressant effects in overdose. It is the drug of choice in this situation.
B. Flumazenil: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the effects of drugs like diazepam or lorazepam. It has no therapeutic effect on opioid toxicity and would not be useful here.
C. Digibind: Digibind is an antidote used specifically for digoxin toxicity. It binds to circulating digoxin to neutralize its effects, but it has no role in opioid-related overdoses.
D. Glucagon: Glucagon is used in cases of beta-blocker overdose or severe hypoglycemia. It is not effective against diphenoxylate toxicity and would not be administered in this context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Oxybutynin: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic that reduces bladder spasms by relaxing the detrusor muscle. It is commonly prescribed post-TURP to relieve discomfort caused by involuntary bladder contractions, especially when a catheter is in place.
B. Phenazopyridine: Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and urgency associated with urinary tract irritation. However, it does not address the underlying muscle spasms that occur post-TURP.
C. Finasteride: Finasteride is a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor used for long-term management of BPH by shrinking the prostate. It is not effective for acute relief of post-procedural bladder spasms and works slowly over months.
D. Tamsulosin: Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 blocker that relaxes prostatic and bladder neck muscles to improve urine flow. While useful in BPH management, it does not treat the muscle spasms that can occur after catheterization or TURP.
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