The nurse is performing screening assessments of adolescents for scoliosis. When performing the assessment, which instruction should the nurse provide?
Sit in a chair facing forward.
Lie prone on the exam table.
Bend forward at the waist.
Bend at the knees facing forward.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Asking a child to sit in a chair facing forward is not the correct position for a scoliosis screening. This position does not allow for the necessary visualization of the spine and back. The Adams forward bend test is the standard screening method for scoliosis, which requires the child to bend at the waist to expose any spinal curvature or asymmetry.
Choice B rationale
Lying prone on the exam table is not the correct position for a scoliosis screening. This position prevents the healthcare provider from being able to properly observe the spine for any lateral curvature or asymmetry. The forward bend test is the most widely used and effective method for detecting scoliosis, as it makes the deformity more prominent.
Choice C rationale
The Adams forward bend test is the gold standard for scoliosis screening. Bending forward at the waist with feet together and arms hanging freely allows the nurse to observe for any asymmetry of the trunk, such as a rib hump, which is indicative of a spinal curve. This maneuver accentuates the rotational deformity of the spine that is characteristic of scoliosis.
Choice D rationale
Asking the child to bend at the knees facing forward is not the correct position for a scoliosis screening. Bending the knees does not expose the spine in a way that allows for proper assessment of spinal curvature or asymmetry. The forward bend test is essential because it effectively reveals any spinal deformities that may not be visible while the child is standing straight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the infant's response to auditory stimuli is a component of a comprehensive neurological examination. However, the absence of a primitive reflex, such as the Moro reflex, which should be present at this age, is a significant abnormal finding indicative of a potential neurological deficit. Therefore, this action is a secondary step after addressing the primary concern.
Choice B rationale
The absence of the Moro reflex in a 1-month-old infant is a critical finding that suggests a potential neurological impairment, possibly affecting the central nervous system or musculoskeletal system. Normal Moro reflex should be present from birth until around 3 to 4 months of age. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is necessary to ensure a timely and thorough evaluation of the infant's neurological status.
Choice C rationale
Documentation is a crucial part of nursing practice, but it is not the first intervention. The nurse must first act on the abnormal finding to ensure the safety and well-being of the infant. The priority is to communicate the significant assessment finding to the healthcare provider so a plan of care can be established.
Choice D rationale
While patient education is important, simply telling the mother that a further assessment is needed does not constitute a primary intervention. The nurse's immediate responsibility is to address the clinical finding with the medical team. The healthcare provider will then order the necessary diagnostic tests and treatments, and the nurse can provide education.
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct conditionThe client presents with classic signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity: absent DTRs, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, and decreased consciousness. Normal DTRs should be 2+; absence indicates neuromuscular depression. Magnesium impairs acetylcholine release, affecting neuromuscular and respiratory systems. A normal serum magnesium level is 1.7–2.2 mg/dL; toxicity often occurs above 7 mg/dL. Urine output <30 mL/hour also suggests impaired renal clearance.
Rationale for correct actionsStopping the infusion halts further accumulation of magnesium, preventing progression to respiratory arrest or cardiac dysfunction. Magnesium is eliminated renally; continued infusion worsens toxicity. Calcium gluconate is the antidote to magnesium toxicity because it competitively antagonizes magnesium’s action at neuromuscular junctions, restoring muscle tone and respiration. Calcium stabilizes cardiac membrane potentials affected by excess magnesium.
Rationale for correct parametersSerum magnesium level directly confirms toxic accumulation above the therapeutic range. Monitoring provides a quantifiable measure to guide treatment. DTRs reflect central and peripheral neuromuscular function; their absence signals excessive magnesium levels impairing synaptic transmission.
Rationale for incorrect conditionsWorsening preeclampsia causes elevated blood pressure and hyperreflexia, not hypotension or absent DTRs. Pulmonary edema exacerbation presents with crackles and hypoxia, but does not explain CNS depression or bradypnea. Hypotension secondary to medication would not cause absent DTRs or respiratory depression unless cardiac output is critically impaired.
Rationale for incorrect actionsIncreasing oxygen does not reverse magnesium toxicity’s neuromuscular depression. Notifying the provider is necessary but insufficient alone. Initiating seizure precautions addresses eclampsia risk, not magnesium toxicity symptoms.
Rationale for incorrect parametersRespiratory rate alone doesn't quantify magnesium status. Urine output indicates renal function but not magnesium level directly. Blood pressure trends aren’t reliable indicators of magnesium toxicity progression.
Take-home points• Magnesium sulfate toxicity presents with bradypnea, absent DTRs, and CNS depression. • Calcium gluconate is the physiological antidote via calcium channel antagonism. • Serum magnesium levels and DTRs are the most sensitive indicators of toxicity. • Differentiation from worsening preeclampsia is vital to prevent mismanagement.
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