The nurse is reviewing the nutritional assessment of an 84-year-old widowed patient. Which of these factors will most likely affect the nutritional status of this patient?
Living alone on a fixed income.
New exercise pattern
Increase in taste and smell.
Increase in gastrointestinal motility and absorption.
The Correct Answer is A
Geriatric nutritional status is heavily influenced by the social determinants of health and age-related physiological decline. The loss of a spouse frequently leads to social isolation and "tea and toast" syndrome, where meal preparation is neglected. Fixed incomes further limit access to high-protein and nutrient-dense whole foods.
A. Living alone on a fixed income: Social isolation and financial constraints are primary risk factors for malnutrition in the elderly. Bereavement often decreases the motivation to cook, leading to poor caloric intake. Economic limitations restrict the ability to purchase fresh, diverse ingredients necessary for health.
B. New exercise pattern: While intense exercise increases caloric needs, an 84-year-old starting a pattern typically improves metabolic health and appetite. It is generally a positive factor for nutritional status unless it causes extreme expenditure. It is a less likely cause of nutritional deficit compared to social factors.
C. Increase in taste and smell: In reality, aging is associated with a decrease in gustatory and olfactory sensitivity due to reduced receptor density. An increase would actually improve appetite and nutritional intake. Since this physiological change does not typically occur in the elderly, it is not the primary concern.
D. Increase in gastrointestinal motility and absorption: Aging is characterized by decreased gastric acid secretion and slowed intestinal transit. An increase in motility and absorption would enhance nutritional status rather than compromise it. This option describes the opposite of normal geriatric physiological changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Inversion is a complex movement of the foot that tilts the sole medially toward the midline of the body. This action primarily occurs at the subtalar and midtarsal joints, facilitated by the tibialis anterior and posterior muscles. It is an essential component of the musculoskeletal exam to evaluate ligamentous stability and neuromuscular control of the ankle.
A. Eversion: Eversion involves tilting the sole of the foot laterally, away from the body's midline. This movement is the anatomical opposite of the inward tilt shown in the picture. It primarily assesses the strength of the peroneal muscles and the integrity of the lateral ankle stabilizers.
B. Pronation: In the context of the foot, pronation is a triplanar movement involving eversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion. It results in a flattening of the medial longitudinal arch. The image focuses on a simple medial tilt, which is a component of supination rather than pronation.
C. Supination: While inversion is a major component of foot supination, supination also includes adduction and plantarflexion. In clinical terminology, when the sole specifically turns inward as shown by the arrow, the most precise term for that specific directional movement is inversion.
D. Inversion: The image depicts the foot being turned so that the plantar surface faces toward the other foot. This specific medial rotation of the foot at the ankle is defined as inversion. This maneuver is frequently tested to check for sprain-related tenderness in the lateral ligaments.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Paralytic ileus or intestinal obstruction is clinically confirmed only after the complete absence of audible peristalsis. The nurse must auscultate each quadrant systematically using the diaphragm of the stethoscope. This determination requires sustained auscultation to ensure no intermittent borborygmi are missed during a period of hypoactivity.
A. None of the above: There is a specific, evidence-based time frame required to validate the absence of bowel sounds in clinical practice. Documentation of "absent bowel sounds" carries significant surgical and medical implications. Therefore, an established temporal standard exists within nursing protocols to prevent premature or incorrect diagnostic conclusions.
B. 2 minutes: Listening for only 120 seconds is insufficient to definitively rule out peristaltic activity. Bowel sounds can be infrequent, occurring only every 15 to 30 seconds in hypoactive states. Relying on this short duration may lead to a false documentation of absence when sounds are merely delayed or sparse.
C. 5 minutes: Clinical guidelines mandate listening for a full 300 seconds before documenting bowel sounds as absent. This duration is necessary to confirm the lack of biological motility and potential surgical emergencies. This represents the "gold standard" for ensuring the assessment is thorough and accurate for the patient's record.
D. 1 minute: One minute of auscultation is the standard time used to determine if bowel sounds are normal, hypoactive, or hyperactive. However, it is far too brief to conclude that the bowel is completely silent. Using this timeframe as a limit risks missing the sounds of a slowly recovering or sluggish gastrointestinal system.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
