The nurse on the mental health unit receives report about a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who has a delusion of reference. Which client statement supports this symptom?
"I need for you to get rid of these bugs that are crawling under my skin."
"Those Martians are trying to poison me with the tap water."
"Hear that? She told me to kill my father."
"That song is a message sent to me in secret code."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This describes tactile hallucinations, a false sensory experience, not a delusion of reference.
Choice B reason: This reflects a persecutory delusion, where the client believes they are being harmed or targeted, not a delusion of reference.
Choice C reason: This illustrates an auditory hallucination with command-type voices, not a delusion of reference.
Choice D reason: Believing that unrelated environmental cues (like a song) carry special, hidden meaning specifically for the client is the hallmark of a delusion of reference.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Propranolol is a beta-blocker primarily used for performance-related anxiety and physical symptoms like tremors or palpitations. It is not considered first-line or standard treatment for panic disorder.
Choice B reason: Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used more often for hypertension, withdrawal syndromes, and sometimes ADHD. It is not a recommended pharmacologic option for panic disorder.
Choice C reason: Alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, is effective for acute management of panic attacks by rapidly reducing anxiety. However, it is generally used short-term due to risks of tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal.
Choice D reason: Buspirone is an anxiolytic used mainly for generalized anxiety disorder. It lacks efficacy in panic disorder and is not typically prescribed for it.
Choice E reason: Clonazepam, another benzodiazepine, is often used to manage panic disorder due to its longer half-life compared to alprazolam, making it effective in reducing frequency and severity of panic attacks.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key.
Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism.
Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.
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