The nurse practitioner orders a series of hearing tests to confirm or rule out noise-induced hearing loss, which is classified as:
Conductive hearing loss.
Sensorineural hearing loss.
Presbycusis.
Mixed hearing loss.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Conductive hearing loss occurs when there is an obstruction or damage in the outer or middle ear that prevents sound waves from reaching the inner ear. Common causes include cerumen impaction, otitis media, or otosclerosis. This type of loss involves a mechanical failure of sound transmission. Noise-induced hearing loss, however, occurs deeper within the ear, affecting the cells that convert vibrations into electrical signals for the brain to process.
Choice B rationale
Sensorineural hearing loss results from damage to the tiny hair cells in the cochlea or the vestibulocochlear nerve. Exposure to loud noises, such as heavy machinery or loud music, causes mechanical and metabolic stress that destroys these hair cells. Once these cells are damaged, they do not regenerate, leading to permanent hearing impairment. This is the specific classification for noise-induced loss because the pathology is located in the sensory organ.
Choice C rationale
Presbycusis is a specific type of sensorineural hearing loss that is related to the aging process. It is characterized by the gradual, bilateral loss of high-frequency hearing due to cumulative changes in the inner ear over time. While it shares the same anatomical location as noise-induced loss, the etiology is different. Presbycusis is an age-related degeneration, whereas noise-induced hearing loss is caused by environmental acoustic trauma regardless of the patient's age.
Choice D rationale
Mixed hearing loss is a combination of both conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. This means there is damage in the outer or middle ear as well as the inner ear or auditory nerve. An example would be a person with noise-induced hearing loss who also develops a middle ear infection. While a client could have both, noise-induced loss on its own is purely classified as sensorineural because the primary damage is within the cochlea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cataracts involve the clouding of the crystalline lens of the eye, which normally focuses light onto the retina. As the lens becomes opaque due to protein clumping, light is scattered rather than focused, resulting in blurry or hazy vision. This progressive condition affects visual acuity and makes objects appear as if the person is looking through a frosted or fogged-up window, which is a classic clinical manifestation of cataract development.
Choice B rationale
The presence of dark spots moving across the visual field is usually indicative of vitreous floaters or potentially a retinal detachment. These spots are caused by shadows cast on the retina by microscopic fibers within the vitreous humor. While common with aging, they are not a primary symptom of cataracts, which focus on the clarity of the lens itself rather than the integrity of the vitreous or the posterior segment of the eye.
Choice C rationale
The inability to see objects from the side of the eyes refers to a loss of peripheral vision, which is a hallmark sign of glaucoma. In glaucoma, increased intraocular pressure damages the optic nerve, typically starting with the outer fibers that provide side vision. Cataracts generally cause a global decrease in clarity across the entire visual field rather than a specific loss of peripheral sight while maintaining central vision as seen in glaucoma.
Choice D rationale
Losing the ability to see things in the middle part of the eyes is characteristic of macular degeneration. The macula is responsible for sharp, central vision required for activities like reading or driving. Damage to this area causes a central blind spot or blurriness. Cataracts, conversely, create a generalized haze. While a cataract can be central, the specific complaint of losing central vision specifically points more toward retinal or macular pathology.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring blood pressure is generally not a required intervention specifically for acetaminophen administration because it does not have the same immediate vasoconstrictive or renal effects that typically elevate systemic blood pressure in the way that NSAIDs do. While general health monitoring is important, acetaminophen lacks the prostaglandin inhibition in the kidneys that would lead to fluid retention or significant hypertension in most patients.
Choice B rationale
Bleeding gums and easy bruising are clinical signs typically associated with anticoagulant therapy or disorders affecting platelet aggregation. Acetaminophen is not a primary anticoagulant and does not significantly interfere with the clotting cascade or platelet function at therapeutic doses. Therefore, these specific symptoms are not the primary adverse effects that a nurse would instruct a patient to monitor when taking this specific medication.
Choice C rationale
Observing for bright red or black tarry stools is a common instruction for patients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs because those medications can cause gastric ulceration and gastrointestinal bleeding. Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic that primarily works in the central nervous system and has minimal effects on gastric mucosa, making the risk for gastrointestinal hemorrhage significantly lower than that of aspirin or ibuprofen.
Choice D rationale
The maximum recommended dose of acetaminophen for a healthy adult is 4000 mg or 4 g in a 24-hour period to prevent severe liver damage. Metabolism occurs via the liver, and excessive intake exhausts glutathione stores, leading to the accumulation of toxic metabolites like NAPQI. This can cause irreversible centrilobular necrosis. Patients must be taught to read all OTC labels to avoid accidental overdose.
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