The order is to infuse 50ml of piggyback antibiotic over 1 hour. The set calibration has a microdrip drop factor. What the flow rate in drops per minute?
The Correct Answer is ["50"]
The correct answer is 50 drops per minute
Explanation:
Step 1 is identify the total volume to be infused
50 mL
Step 2 is identify the time in minutes
1 hour = 60 minutes
Step 3 is identify the drop factor for a microdrip set
Microdrip = 60 drops per mL
Step 4 is multiply the volume by the drop factor
50 × 60 = 3000 drops
Step 5 is divide total drops by time in minutes
(3000 ÷ 60) = 50
Result = 50 drops per minute
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Implementing interventions addresses specific needs but is not the primary goal of therapeutic communication during admission. Interventions follow after building trust, as depression and anxiety require a strong therapeutic alliance to ensure effective treatment engagement, making this a secondary priority at this stage.
Choice B reason: Teaching self-care skills is important for long-term management but not the initial communication goal. Clients with depression and anxiety need trust and emotional safety first to engage in learning, making skill-building secondary to establishing a therapeutic relationship during the admission assessment.
Choice C reason: Facilitating emotional expression is a key component of therapeutic communication but depends on a trusting relationship. Without a strong nurse-client bond, clients with depression and anxiety may resist sharing emotions, making this goal important but secondary to establishing rapport during the initial assessment.
Choice D reason: Establishing a therapeutic nurse-client relationship is the priority during admission, as it builds trust and safety, critical for clients with depression and anxiety. This foundation enables emotional expression, engagement in interventions, and skill-building, ensuring effective communication and treatment adherence, making it the primary goal in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Assault involves threatening harm, not applicable here, as the issue is failure to document assessments, not intentional threats by staff. The client’s self-harm resulted from inadequate monitoring, not a staff-initiated threat, making assault an incorrect legal issue in this scenario.
Choice B reason: Battery involves unauthorized physical contact, not relevant to failure to document assessments. The client’s self-harm stemmed from inadequate observation, not staff-inflicted harm, making battery an inappropriate legal claim compared to negligence in monitoring and documentation.
Choice C reason: Suicide risk is a clinical concern, not a legal issue to defend against. While the client’s self-harm indicates risk, the hospital’s liability arises from failure to follow monitoring protocols, not the risk itself, making this option incorrect for the legal defense context.
Choice D reason: Malpractice involves negligence, such as failing to document hourly assessments for a high-risk client, leading to harm. This breach of standard care (1:1 observation) allowed self-harm, making the hospital liable for not adhering to protocols, requiring defense against malpractice for inadequate monitoring and documentation.
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