The partner of a client with terminal brain cancer asks the nurse about the client's prognosis.
What is the most appropriate response by the nurse to address the partner's concerns?
Try to stay positive: treatment advances quickly.
Focus on making the most of the time you have left together.
Everything happens for a reason: this is just part of life's journey.
Your loved one's prognosis is not good, but we will do our best to make them comfortable.
The Correct Answer is D
End of life communication requires applying principles of therapeutic honesty and empathy. Knowledge of palliative care communication involves providing clear, realistic information about the prognosis while offering emotional support and ensuring the family understands the focus on comfort and dignity.
Choice A rationale
Offering false hope through vague mentions of medical advances is non-therapeutic. It prevents the family from beginning the grieving process and making necessary end of life decisions. Honesty is essential for maintaining trust between the nurse and the family.
Choice B rationale
This response is dismissive and minimizes the partner's distress. While well intentioned, it provides unsolicited advice rather than addressing the actual question about prognosis. It fails to acknowledge the clinical reality of terminal brain cancer and impending loss.
Choice C rationale
Using platitudes or religious generalizations is insensitive and non-therapeutic. It shuts down further communication and may offend the partner. The nurse should avoid imposing philosophical beliefs and instead focus on the patient's actual clinical status and comfort.
Choice D rationale
This response is honest, direct, and compassionate. It acknowledges the terminal nature of the illness while redirecting the focus to the goals of care, which are comfort and symptom management. It supports the family through realistic expectations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Post-operative skin graft care focuses on maximizing graft take by reducing edema and preventing shearing. Knowledge of tissue perfusion and fluid dynamics is necessary to prioritize actions that minimize swelling, which can lift the graft from the bed.
Choice A rationale
Elevating the affected extremity reduces edema at the graft site by promoting venous return. Excessive swelling can separate the new graft from the underlying vascular bed, preventing necessary revascularization and leading to graft failure or necrosis.
Choice B rationale
Inspecting the graft site is important, but the nurse should generally not disturb the initial surgical dressing. Frequent inspection increases the risk of shearing or dislodging the delicate graft before it has successfully adhered to the site.
Choice C rationale
Ensuring the patient does not lie on the graft is a standard intervention to prevent pressure and shearing. However, in the presence of noted edema, elevation is the priority action to ensure the graft remains viable.
Choice D rationale
Administering analgesics addresses the pain level of 6/10, which is important for comfort. However, pain is expected, whereas reducing edema through elevation is functionally more critical to the physiological success and survival of the graft.
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Managing disseminated intravascular coagulation involves identifying secondary complications of microvascular thrombosis and hemorrhage. Knowledge of coagulation pathways and end-organ perfusion assessment is required to differentiate between laboratory markers of the disease process and clinical indicators of worsening organ failure.
Choice A rationale
A prolonged prothrombin time, where the normal range is 11 to 13.5 seconds, is a diagnostic laboratory finding for this condition. However, it represents a hematological marker of the clotting cascade exhaustion rather than organ dysfunction.
Choice B rationale
Elevated D-dimer, with a normal range usually less than 500 ng/mL, indicates active fibrinolysis. While it confirms the presence of the disorder and ongoing clot breakdown, it is a laboratory value, not a clinical cue.
Choice C rationale
Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds indicates poor peripheral tissue perfusion. In this condition, microthrombi obstruct small vessels, leading to ischemia. A refill of 5 seconds signals significant circulatory compromise and potential progression toward multi-organ failure.
Choice D rationale
Petechiae and purpura are classic integumentary signs of bleeding due to thrombocytopenia and clotting factor depletion. While they signify active bleeding, they are considered standard symptoms of the disease rather than specific markers of organ dysfunction.
Choice E rationale
Decreased urine output, typically defined as less than 30 mL per hour, indicates impaired renal perfusion or acute kidney injury. This occurs due to microvascular thrombi in the renal capillaries, signaling significant organ dysfunction.
Choice F rationale
A normal platelet count, ranging from 150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm, would indicate improvement rather than worsening. In active cases, platelets are rapidly consumed, leading to severe thrombocytopenia as the body attempts to form micro-clots throughout the vasculature.
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