The three regions of the decidua include which of the following? Select all that apply
Decidua basalis
Decidua capsularis
Decidua parietalis
Decidua chorion
Decidua embryonalis
Correct Answer : A,B,C
The decidua is the modified endometrial lining of the uterus during pregnancy, essential for implantation and support of the developing embryo. It comprises three distinct regions based on their relation to the implanted embryo: the decidua basalis (beneath the implantation site), the decidua capsularis (surrounding the embryo), and the decidua parietalis (lining the remaining uterine cavity). These layers facilitate maternal-fetal interface, immune modulation, and vascular adaptation necessary for fetal development. Normal thickness of the decidua varies but is generally 5 to 7 mm during early pregnancy.
Rationale for correct answers
A. The decidua basalis is the region of the endometrium directly beneath the implanted blastocyst and forms the maternal part of the placenta, crucial for nutrient exchange and trophoblast invasion.
B. The decidua capsularis surrounds the implanted embryo, enclosing it within the uterine cavity before it eventually fuses with the decidua parietalis as the pregnancy progresses.
C. The decidua parietalis lines the remainder of the uterine cavity not involved in implantation and eventually fuses with the decidua capsularis by mid-pregnancy.
Rationale for incorrect answers
D. Decidua chorion is not a recognized anatomical subdivision of the decidua; the chorion is a separate fetal membrane derived from trophoblast cells.
E. Decidua embryonalis is not a standard anatomical term for decidual regions; the term is sometimes mistakenly used but does not correspond to any specific decidual layer.
Take home points
- The decidua has three regions: basalis, capsularis, and parietalis.
- Decidua basalis forms the maternal portion of the placenta.
- Decidua capsularis encloses the embryo initially and later fuses with the parietalis.
- Proper decidual development is critical for implantation and pregnancy maintenance.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Amniocentesis is an invasive prenatal diagnostic procedure primarily used to sample amniotic fluid for chromosomal, genetic, and fetal lung maturity assessments. Typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks’ gestation, it involves transabdominal insertion of a needle under ultrasound guidance to withdraw 15–20 mL of fluid containing fetal cells. This fluid contains fetal DNA, proteins like lecithin and sphingomyelin, which are used to assess lung maturity, with a lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio above 2.0 indicating mature lungs. It also helps diagnose genetic disorders and neural tube defects.
Rationale for correct answers
C. Amniocentesis samples amniotic fluid to analyze fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., trisomy 21), genetic mutations, and biochemical markers for lung maturity such as the L/S ratio, providing critical information for fetal health assessment.
Rationale for incorrect answers
A. Measuring fundal height is a non-invasive clinical method to estimate fetal growth and weight, unrelated to amniocentesis.
B. Doppler ultrasound assesses uteroplacental blood flow and fetal circulation but does not involve sampling amniotic fluid.
D. Fetal heart tones are detected by Doppler or fetoscope, especially in early pregnancy, and are not confirmed by amniocentesis.
Take home points
- Amniocentesis is used to sample amniotic fluid for genetic and lung maturity testing.
- It provides critical prenatal diagnostic information on chromosomal abnormalities and fetal well-being.
- Fundal height measurement and Doppler ultrasound serve different diagnostic roles unrelated to amniocentesis.
- Fetal heart tones are confirmed by non-invasive methods, not amniocentesis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Fertilization is the process whereby a single sperm penetrates the oocyte cytoplasm, initiating the fusion of genetic material. This event results in the formation of a diploid zygote through the fusion of the male and female pronuclei. Fertilization triggers the completion of the oocyte's second meiotic division and initiates the first mitotic divisions. The zygote contains 46 chromosomes (23 pairs), restoring the diploid number essential for normal embryogenesis.
Rationale for correct answers
C. After sperm entry, the male and female pronuclei migrate towards each other and fuse, creating a single diploid nucleus within the zygote. This fusion marks the true completion of fertilization and the genetic unification necessary for embryonic development.
Rationale for incorrect answers
A. The formation of a blastocyst, containing an inner cell mass and trophoblast, occurs several days post-fertilization during the blastocyst stage, not immediately upon sperm-oocyte fusion.
B. Differentiation of the morula into an embryo occurs after several rounds of cleavage and compaction, occurring days after fertilization, thus not at the immediate completion of fertilization.
D. Rapid mitotic divisions producing blastomeres begin after fertilization but represent cleavage stages rather than the completion event of fertilization itself, which is specifically defined by pronuclear fusion.
Take home points
- Fertilization completion is defined by the fusion of male and female pronuclei forming a diploid zygote.
- The zygote contains 46 chromosomes, restoring diploidy essential for normal development.
- Subsequent events such as cleavage and blastocyst formation occur days after fertilization.
- Early embryogenesis depends on successful pronuclear fusion to initiate mitotic divisions.
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