Twenty hours after undergoing kidney transplantation, a client develops a hyperacute rejection. To correct this problem, the nurse should prepare the client for
bone marrow transplant
immediate dialysis to prevent damage to the new kidney.
high-dose intravenous cyclosporin therapy.
removal of the transplanted kidney.
The Correct Answer is D
A. bone marrow transplant: Bone marrow transplant does not reverse hyperacute rejection. This type of rejection occurs because of pre-existing antibodies, and once the process begins, the damage progresses too rapidly for immune-modulating procedures like marrow transplant to be effective.
B. immediate dialysis to prevent damage to the new kidney: Dialysis may be needed after the kidney is removed, but it does not stop the rejection process. Hyperacute rejection results in irreversible vascular injury to the graft, so dialysis cannot salvage the transplanted organ.
C. high-dose intravenous cyclosporin therapy: Cyclosporin is useful for preventing or managing acute rejection, not hyperacute rejection. In hyperacute rejection, the tissue damage occurs within minutes to hours, and immunosuppressive therapy cannot reverse the destruction once it has begun.
D. removal of the transplanted kidney: Hyperacute rejection is caused by preformed antibodies that immediately attack the graft, leading to rapid thrombosis and necrosis. The transplanted organ is nonviable, so prompt removal is necessary to prevent systemic complications such as sepsis or disseminated clotting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Lactulose: Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy by promoting bowel excretion of nitrogen, but it does not control bleeding. It addresses neurologic complications rather than hemorrhage.
B. Vasopressin: Vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor that reduces portal venous pressure, helping control active bleeding from esophageal varices. It is commonly administered in acute variceal hemorrhage to achieve hemostasis and stabilize the client.
C. Propranolol: Propranolol, a nonselective beta-blocker, is used prophylactically to reduce portal hypertension and prevent variceal bleeding. It is not effective in stopping active hemorrhage.
D. Neomycin sulfate: Neomycin is an antibiotic used to reduce intestinal bacteria and lower ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy. It has no role in controlling acute variceal bleeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Autonomic dysreflexia: Autonomic dysreflexia occurs after spinal shock has resolved, typically in injuries at T6 or above, and presents with hypertension, bradycardia, and headache. Areflexia is not a feature of this condition.
B. Epidural hematoma: Epidural hematoma may cause neurological deficits, but its presentation is usually localized and acute, not a generalized loss of reflexes below the injury. Areflexia alone does not confirm this diagnosis.
C. Neurogenic shock: Neurogenic shock involves hypotension and bradycardia due to sympathetic disruption, but it is a hemodynamic condition. Loss of reflexes is a neurological finding and indicates a different process.
D. Spinal shock: Spinal shock is characterized by temporary loss of all reflexes, motor, and sensory function below the level of injury. Areflexia is a hallmark of this initial phase following spinal cord trauma. Recognition guides appropriate monitoring and care.
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