Upon entering the room of a client who has had a spontaneous abortion, the nurse observes the client crying. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
I'm sorry you lost your baby.
Why are you crying?
Will a pill help your pain?
A baby still wasn't formed in your womb.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is the correct answer because it is an empathetic and supportive response that acknowledges the client's loss and grief. This is an empathetic and supportive response that acknowledges the client's loss and grief. The other choices are inappropriate because they are insensitive, dismissive, or inaccurate.
Choice B Reason: This is an inappropriate answer because it implies that the nurse does not understand or care about the client's emotional state. It also suggests that the client has no Reason to cry, which is invalidating and hurtful.
Choice C Reason: This is an inappropriate answer because it focuses on the physical pain rather than the emotional pain of the client. It also implies that the nurse wants to avoid dealing with the client's feelings and just give them a medication to make them stop crying.
Choice D Reason: This is an inappropriate answer because it is inaccurate and misleading. A spontaneous abortion, also known as a miscarriage, occurs when a pregnancy ends before 20 weeks of gestation. At this stage, the baby is already formed and has a heartbeat, organs, and limbs. Saying that a baby still wasn't formed in the womb is false and insensitive to the client's loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Preeclampsia is a condition in which a pregnant woman develops high blood pressure and proteinuria (protein in the urine). It can lead to serious complications such as eclampsia, which is seizures caused by preeclampsia, and HELLP syndrome, which is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. The main risk factor for preeclampsia is chronic hypertension, which means high blood pressure before pregnancy or before 20 weeks of gestation. Preeclampsia can be detected by measuring the blood pressure and urine protein level. Uric acid is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia.
Choice B Reason: Gestational diabetes is the correct answer as explained above.
Choice C Reason: Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that causes seizures and can be fatal for both the mother and the baby. It usually occurs after 20 weeks of gestation or during labor or postpartum. The main risk factor for eclampsia is preeclampsia, which means high blood pressure and proteinuria during pregnancy. Eclampsia can be prevented by treating preeclampsia with antihypertensive drugs and magnesium sulfate, which is a medication that prevents seizures. Magnesium sulfate can also lower the serum magnesium level, which is the amount of magnesium in the blood. However, magnesium level is not a diagnostic criterion for eclampsia.
Choice D Reason: Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the opening of the cervix. It can cause bleeding during pregnancy or delivery and can endanger both the mother and the baby. The main risk factor for placenta previa is previous cesarean section or other uterine surgery, which can cause scarring or damage to the uterine wall. Placenta previa can be detected by ultrasound, which is an imaging test that uses sound waves to create pictures of the uterus and placenta. Hemoglobin is not a relevant factor for placenta previa. Gestational diabetes is a condition in which a woman develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. It can cause complications for both the mother and the baby, such as macrosomia, hypoglycemia, and birth trauma. The main risk factor for gestational diabetes is glucose intolerance, which means the body cannot use glucose effectively. Glucose intolerance can be detected by measuring the serum glucose level, which is the amount of glucose in the blood.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: A clear liquid diet is not appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum, which is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and weight loss. A clear liquid diet does not provide adequate calories, protein, vitamins, or minerals for the client and the fetus.
Choice B: Administration of diethylstilbestrol is not indicated for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Diethylstilbestrol is a synthetic estrogen that was used in the past to prevent miscarriage and premature birth, but it was found to cause serious adverse effects such as vaginal cancer, infertility, and birth defects in the offspring.
Choice C: Total parenteral nutrition is the correct choice because it provides a complete and balanced source of nutrients through a central venous catheter. It is used for clients who cannot tolerate oral or enteral feeding due to severe gastrointestinal disorders such as hyperemesis gravidarum. It helps to prevent malnutrition, dehydration, and ketosis in the client and the fetus.
Choice D: Nothing by mouth is not a suitable option for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. It can worsen the condition by causing starvation, acidosis, and ketosis. It can also increase the risk of aspiration pneumonia if the client vomits.
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