What can cause an alloimmune phenomenon?
Genetic mutations in the host's immune system
Transfusion of blood from a different blood type
Exposure to environmental toxins and pollutants
Infection with a pathogenic virus
The Correct Answer is B
A. Genetic mutations within the host's immune system usually manifest as primary immunodeficiency syndromes or a loss of self-tolerance leading to autoimmune diseases. Alloimmunity specifically requires the presence of non-self antigens from a donor of the same species to trigger a response. While mutations affect immune function, they do not inherently provide the foreign human antigens necessary to define an alloimmune reaction.
B. Alloimmunity is an immune response directed against the antigens of another individual of the same species, frequently seen in blood transfusions. When a recipient receives incompatible erythrocytes, their pre-existing antibodies recognize the foreign ABO or Rh antigens as non-self. This triggers an immediate type 2 hypersensitivity reaction, leading to the immunological destruction of the donor cells via complement activation and phagocytosis.
C. Environmental toxins and pollutants can act as irritants or haptens that trigger hypersensitivity reactions, but they do not involve inter-species tissue recognition. These substances may cause systemic inflammation or allergic responses, yet they lack the human leukocyte antigens or blood group antigens required for alloimmunity. Therefore, toxin exposure is classified under toxicology or allergy rather than the specific category of alloimmune phenomena.
D. A pathogenic virus introduces foreign viral proteins into the host, eliciting a standard adaptive immune response to clear the infection. While this involves the recognition of non-self material, the term alloimmunity is strictly reserved for reactions against antigens from another human. Viral infections trigger anti-viral immunity, not an alloimmune attack, because the target antigens are of microbial origin rather than human origin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used strictly for the long-term maintenance and prophylaxis of bronchospasm in chronic asthma or COPD. It possesses a delayed onset of action and does not provide the immediate smooth muscle relaxation required during a life-threatening acute exacerbation. Using a LABA as a rescue medication is contraindicated because it cannot rapidly reverse the acute narrowing of the airways.
B. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that provides anti-inflammatory benefits by inhibiting the late-phase response to allergens and exercise. It is an oral maintenance medication that requires daily administration to achieve therapeutic levels in the systemic circulation. It has no direct bronchodilatory effect and is therefore entirely ineffective for the immediate management of an acute, symptomatic asthma attack in an emergency.
C. Ipratropium bromide is an anticholinergic agent that provides bronchodilation by blocking muscarinic receptors in the large airways. While it is frequently used in combination with beta-agonists for severe asthma exacerbations, it is not considered the stand-alone first-line therapy. Its onset of action is generally slower than that of beta-agonists, making it an adjunctive rather than a primary rescue medication in most clinical protocols.
D. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonists, such as albuterol, are the first-line treatment for acute asthma due to their rapid onset within minutes. These medications bind to beta-2 adrenergic receptors on pulmonary smooth muscle cells, increasing intracellular cyclic AMP and causing immediate muscle relaxation. This swift physiological reversal of bronchoconstriction is essential for increasing airflow and resolving the acute respiratory distress associated with an asthma flare.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Fetal antibodies against maternal Rh antigens: This is physiologically impossible because the fetal immune system is too immature to mount a significant primary antibody response against maternal antigens. Furthermore, the fetus is not exposed to maternal red blood cells in a way that would trigger such a reaction. The pathology of Rh incompatibility is always driven by the maternal immune system.
B. Maternal antibodies against fetal Rh antigens: This process occurs when an Rh-negative mother is sensitized to Rh-positive fetal erythrocytes, leading to the production of IgG antibodies. These small antibodies can cross the placental barrier and enter the fetal circulation. Once inside the fetus, they target and destroy fetal red blood cells, resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
C. Fetal T-cell activation against maternal Rh antigens: This choice incorrectly identifies the cell type and the direction of the immune response. Neonatal alloimmunity is a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction mediated by antibodies, not a cell-mediated type 4 reaction involving T-lymphocytes. The fetal immune system remains largely passive in this specific pathological interaction during the gestational period.
D. Maternal T-cell activation against fetal Rh antigens: While T-cells are involved in the mother's initial sensitization and "help" B-cells produce antibodies, they do not cross the placenta to attack the fetus. The direct cause of fetal hemolysis is the transplacental passage of maternal immunoglobulin G. Therefore, the cellular T-cell response of the mother stays within the maternal compartment.
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