What is an adverse effect of estradiol?
Thromboembolism
Hyperglycemia
Blurry vision
Increased urination
The Correct Answer is A
A. Thromboembolism: Estradiol, as an estrogen therapy, increases the risk of thromboembolic events by promoting hepatic synthesis of clotting factors and altering the balance of procoagulant and anticoagulant proteins. This can lead to deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or stroke, particularly in clients with additional risk factors.
B. Hyperglycemia: Estradiol does not typically cause elevated blood glucose. Its primary metabolic effects involve reproductive and cardiovascular systems, not glucose regulation, so hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect.
C. Blurry vision: While ocular changes may occur with hormonal fluctuations, blurry vision is not a common or significant adverse effect of estradiol therapy. Severe visual changes would warrant evaluation for other causes.
D. Increased urination: Estradiol does not usually affect urine output. Increased urination is not pharmacologically linked to estrogen therapy and would require assessment for alternative etiologies such as diabetes or diuretic use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client received a medication to prevent nausea from occurring: Prophylactic therapy involves administering a drug to prevent a condition or symptom before it develops. Giving an antiemetic before a procedure or chemotherapy to prevent nausea exemplifies preventive use, reducing the risk of adverse effects before they occur.
B. A client received a medication to replace insulin in their body: Insulin replacement is considered replacement therapy, not prophylactic therapy. It provides an essential hormone that the body cannot produce, maintaining metabolic function rather than preventing a condition.
C. A client received a medication to treat a diagnosed infection: Treatment of an existing infection is therapeutic, not prophylactic. Prophylactic therapy occurs before a problem develops, whereas treating an active infection addresses an already established condition.
D. A client received a medication to slow the progression of arthritis: Medications that slow disease progression are considered disease-modifying therapy. While they may prevent worsening, they do not serve the primary purpose of preventing a symptom or condition before it occurs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Between 0730 and 0830: Regular insulin has an onset of about 30 minutes, but it does not reach peak plasma concentration this early. Blood glucose may begin to fall slightly, but the risk for clinically significant hypoglycemia is still low during this initial absorption phase.
B. Between 1500 and 1700: Regular insulin’s duration extends up to 6–8 hours, but its pharmacodynamic activity is weakest during the late phase. By mid-afternoon, serum insulin levels have declined substantially, making hypoglycemia unlikely unless additional factors such as excessive exercise or skipped meals are involved.
C. Between 1200 and 1400: By this time, regular insulin is nearing the end of its effective window, with plasma levels falling as it is metabolized. While mild hypoglycemia is still possible in sensitive clients, this period does not correlate with the drug’s peak activity and is not the highest-risk interval.
D. Between 0900 and 1100: Regular insulin peaks about 2–4 hours after administration, producing its maximum glucose-lowering effect during this period. Insulin-driven cellular uptake of glucose is highest, increasing the likelihood of symptomatic hypoglycemia, especially without adequate carbohydrate intake.
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