What is the recommended cuff inflation pressure for an endotracheal tube to prevent tissue necrosis in a client?
20 and 25 mm Hg
20 to 30 mm Hg
20 to 30 cm H20
24 and 30 mm Hg
The Correct Answer is C
Endotracheal tube cuff inflation is critical for maintaining a secure airway in mechanically ventilated clients. The cuff creates a seal within the trachea to prevent air leaks and aspiration of secretions into the lower respiratory tract. However, excessive cuff pressure can compromise tracheal mucosal perfusion, leading to ischemia, ulceration, and long-term tracheal damage. Therefore, cuff pressure must be carefully maintained within a safe therapeutic range.
Rationale:
A. 20 to 25 mm Hg is incorrect because cuff pressure is measured in centimeters of water (cm H₂O), not millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). Using the wrong unit reflects a misunderstanding of airway pressure monitoring and may lead to improper interpretation of safe pressure ranges.
B. 20 to 30 mm Hg is also incorrect because both the unit and range are inappropriate for endotracheal cuff monitoring. Even if converted, this pressure would exceed safe tracheal mucosal perfusion limits, increasing the risk of ischemia and tissue necrosis. Accurate measurement in cm H₂O is essential for safe practice.
C. 20 to 30 cm H₂O is correct because this is the recommended safe range for endotracheal cuff inflation. Maintaining pressure within this range provides an effective seal to prevent aspiration while preserving capillary blood flow to the tracheal mucosa. Pressures above this range can impair perfusion and lead to tracheal injury.
D. 24 to 30 mm Hg is incorrect due to both incorrect units and excessive pressure values. This range would significantly exceed safe tracheal mucosal perfusion pressure if interpreted clinically. Sustained high cuff pressures increase the risk of tracheal necrosis, stenosis, and long-term airway complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Major burn injuries involving significant total body surface area (TBSA) loss lead to massive fluid shifts, capillary leakage, and hypovolemic shock. Early fluid resuscitation is essential to maintain tissue perfusion, prevent organ failure, and support cardiovascular stability. The effectiveness of resuscitation is primarily assessed through end-organ perfusion indicators rather than vital signs alone. Urine output is one of the most reliable clinical markers of adequate renal perfusion and overall fluid resuscitation success.
Rationale:
A. A continuous heart rate above 120 bpm indicates ongoing sympathetic stimulation and possible inadequate fluid resuscitation. Tachycardia is a compensatory response to hypovolemia and reduced tissue perfusion. Therefore, persistent elevation suggests that circulating volume may still be insufficient rather than effectively corrected.
B. Urine output of at least 1 to 2 mL/kg/hr is the most reliable indicator of effective fluid resuscitation in burn clients. Adequate urine production reflects improved renal perfusion and overall intravascular volume restoration. In burn management, maintaining target urine output confirms that end-organ perfusion is being achieved and guides ongoing fluid therapy adjustments.
C. Blood pressure remaining constant at baseline levels is not a sensitive indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in burn patients. Blood pressure may remain normal due to compensatory vasoconstriction even in early hypovolemia. Therefore, relying solely on blood pressure can delay recognition of inadequate perfusion.
D. Daily fluctuations in body weight exceeding 2 kg are not used as a primary measure of resuscitation effectiveness in acute burn management. While weight changes can reflect fluid shifts, they are not practical for real-time assessment of resuscitation adequacy. Clinical parameters such as urine output and mental status are more immediate and reliable indicators.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
ST-segment changes on an electrocardiogram (ECG) are critical indicators of myocardial oxygenation status. ST-segment elevation in two or more contiguous leads is a hallmark finding of acute myocardial infarction, specifically ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). This reflects complete or near-complete occlusion of a coronary artery, leading to ongoing myocardial ischemia and necrosis. Prompt recognition and rapid intervention are essential to restore perfusion and limit myocardial damage.
Rationale:
A. Stable angina is characterized by transient chest pain that is typically relieved with rest or nitroglycerin and does not produce persistent ECG changes. ST-segment elevation is not a feature of stable angina. Instead, stable angina is associated with reversible myocardial ischemia without permanent tissue damage.
B. ST-segment elevation in two adjoining leads indicates an acute myocardial infarction, specifically a STEMI. This finding reflects transmural ischemia due to complete coronary artery occlusion, leading to myocardial cell death if not rapidly treated. Immediate reperfusion therapy is required to restore blood flow and limit cardiac damage.
C. A first-degree atrioventricular block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval on ECG, not ST-segment elevation. It is generally a benign conduction delay that does not indicate acute myocardial ischemia. Therefore, it is unrelated to the acute presentation described.
D. Recovery from an old myocardial infarction is typically associated with Q-wave changes rather than acute ST-segment elevation. ST elevation suggests an active, ongoing ischemic process rather than a resolved or healed event. Thus, this finding is inconsistent with a past MI recovery phase.
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