When administering neuromuscular blocking agents, it is important to know that these agents provide:

antianxiety effects.

complete analgesia.

high levels of sedation.

no sedation or analgesia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale:

A. Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) do not relieve anxiety. They only paralyze skeletal muscles and do not affect the central nervous system’s perception of fear or distress.

B. NMBAs do not provide pain relief. A patient under the effects of an NMBA may still experience pain but cannot move or communicate discomfort. Analgesics must be administered separately.

C. NMBAs do not induce sedation. The patient remains fully conscious and aware unless sedatives or anesthetics are given concurrently.

D. Neuromuscular blocking agents only cause skeletal muscle paralysis. They do not affect pain perception, consciousness, or anxiety. Because patients cannot move or communicate while paralyzed, it is essential to provide concurrent sedation and analgesia to prevent severe distress.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Preparing to assist with intubating the patient is correct. ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia that is often refractory to supplemental oxygen. Patients frequently require early airway management with endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure. Prompt anticipation of intubation is critical in preventing rapid deterioration.

B. Setting up oxygen at 5 L/minute by nasal cannula is incorrect because ARDS patients typically do not achieve adequate oxygenation with low-flow oxygen. They require higher oxygen delivery methods, often non-rebreather masks initially or mechanical ventilation.

C. Performing deep suctioning is incorrect as a first intervention. Suctioning may be needed to clear secretions, but it does not address the primary problem of hypoxemia in ARDS.

D. Setting up a nebulizer to administer corticosteroids is incorrect because corticosteroids are not the first-line intervention for acute ARDS and are not delivered via nebulizer in this scenario. Immediate focus is on airway and oxygenation support.

A. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged sputum. B. The patient's temperature is 101.5 F after 2 days of IV antibiotic therapy. C. The patient has scattered crackles throughout the posterior lung bases. D. The patient's SpO2 has dropped to 90%, although the O2 flow rate has been increased.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Blood-tinged sputum can occur with irritation of the airways or forceful coughing. While it warrants monitoring, it is not immediately life-threatening in the context of pneumonia unless it becomes massive hemoptysis.

B. A mild fever after 2 days of antibiotics may indicate that the infection is still responding or that the therapeutic effect has not fully taken place. While it should be reported, it is not as urgent as a significant oxygenation problem.

C. Crackles are a common finding in pneumonia and reflect fluid in the alveoli. This is expected and not an urgent change requiring immediate provider notification.

D. A drop in oxygen saturation despite increased oxygen support indicates worsening hypoxemia, which is an acute and potentially life-threatening deterioration. This could signal progression of pneumonia, development of acute respiratory distress, or another complication such as a pulmonary embolism. Prompt communication with the healthcare provider is essential to prevent respiratory failure.

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When administering neuromuscular blocking agents, it is important to know that these agents provide:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient has been brought to the ED by the paramedics. The patient is suspected of having ARDS. What intervention should the nurse first anticipate?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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