When performing a Non-Stress test, the nurse interprets the finding of two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute above the baseline rate of 135 beats per minute lasting for 15 seconds in 20 minutes.
This should be documented as:
Reactive Non-stress test.
Non-reactive Non-stress test.
Negative Non-stress test.
Positive Non-stress test.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A reactive non-stress test indicates fetal well-being. The criteria for a reactive NST in a fetus greater than 32 weeks gestation include two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. The baseline fetal heart rate should be within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This client's results meet these criteria.
Choice B rationale
A non-reactive non-stress test lacks the required number of fetal heart rate accelerations or the accelerations do not meet the amplitude or duration criteria within the specified time frame. This suggests the fetus may be experiencing some form of stress and requires further evaluation.
Choice C rationale
A negative non-stress test is not a standard term used to describe NST results. The test is categorized as either reactive (indicating fetal well-being) or non-reactive (suggesting potential fetal compromise).
Choice D rationale
A positive non-stress test is also not a standard term used for NST interpretation. A positive result in fetal monitoring typically refers to a contraction stress test where late decelerations are observed, indicating potential uteroplacental insufficiency.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Puerperal infection, an infection of the reproductive tract after childbirth, is a risk factor for all postpartum women. However, a large newborn size (macrosomia) increases the risk of prolonged labor, increased instrumentation during delivery, and postpartum hemorrhage, which indirectly increases the risk of infection but is not the most direct immediate risk related to the newborn's weight.
Choice B rationale
Retained placental fragments are a risk factor when the placenta does not deliver intact. While a large newborn can sometimes be associated with difficulties during placental delivery, it is not the primary direct risk factor immediately following birth. Uterine atony is a more immediate and direct risk related to uterine overdistension.
Choice C rationale
Thrombophlebitis, the formation of blood clots in the veins, is a postpartum risk factor related to hormonal changes, immobility, and hypercoagulability. While factors like prolonged labor (more common with large babies) can contribute, it is not the most immediate and direct risk in the first few hours postpartum for a woman who delivered a large newborn.
Choice D rationale
A newborn weighing 9 lb 6 oz (4252 g) is considered macrosomic. This large size can lead to overdistension of the uterus during pregnancy and labor. Uterine overdistension impairs the ability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after delivery, a condition known as uterine atony. Uterine atony is the primary and most immediate risk for postpartum hemorrhage in women who have delivered large newborns. .
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The risk for newborn infection is primarily associated with prolonged rupture of membranes or maternal infection during labor, not directly with the administration of general anesthesia during a cesarean birth.
Choice B rationale
While the postpartum period is a time of increased risk for DVT due to hormonal changes and decreased mobility, general anesthesia itself does not significantly increase this risk compared to regional anesthesia. Surgical procedures in general increase DVT risk.
Choice C rationale
General anesthesia can lead to uterine atony, a condition where the uterus fails to contract adequately after delivery. This lack of contraction can result in postpartum hemorrhage, making postpartum bleeding the greatest risk associated with general anesthesia in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
The risk for infection is primarily associated with the surgical incision and the postpartum period in general, not specifically with the type of anesthesia used during the cesarean birth.
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