Which tricyclic antidepressant, used to treat depression, but is also used to treat pain (nerve pain and back pain) at lower doses, should be taken before bed, can cause extra side effects if you stop taking suddenly.
Selegiline
Bupropion
Citalopram
Amitriptyline
The Correct Answer is D
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In addition to treating depression, certain TCAs are widely used at lower doses for chronic pain conditions such as neuropathic pain and back pain. Their sedative properties make them beneficial for patients with sleep disturbances. However, abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms due to their effects on neurotransmitter balance.
Rationale:
A. Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) primarily used in the management of Parkinson’s disease and sometimes depression. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of dopamine rather than affecting serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake. It is not classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and is not used for chronic pain management or bedtime sedation.
B. Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant that primarily inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine. It is commonly used for depression and smoking cessation but lacks the sedative properties seen in tricyclic antidepressants. It is not effective for neuropathic pain and is usually taken in the morning due to its stimulating effects.
C. Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used mainly for depression and anxiety disorders. It does not have significant analgesic properties for neuropathic pain and is not classified as a tricyclic antidepressant. Its side effect profile and mechanism differ significantly from TCAs.
D. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that is frequently used at low doses for neuropathic pain and chronic back pain. It has strong antihistaminic effects that cause sedation, making bedtime administration appropriate. Abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms such as nausea, headache, and malaise due to sudden neurotransmitter imbalance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
First-generation antipsychotics (FGAs) are dopamine D2 receptor antagonists used in the management of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. While effective for controlling positive symptoms, they are strongly associated with extrapyramidal side effects due to dopamine blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway. These adverse effects can range from acute movement disorders to delayed, often irreversible dyskinesias. Recognizing specific motor abnormalities is essential for early intervention and prevention of progression.
Rationale:
A. Akathisia is characterized by a subjective feeling of inner restlessness accompanied by observable motor agitation such as pacing or inability to sit still. It is distressing but does not involve abnormal involuntary facial or tongue movements.
B. Tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset extrapyramidal side effect of long-term dopamine blockade from First-generation antipsychotics. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive, and often irreversible movements such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, chewing motions, and “worm-like” tongue movements (lingual dyskinesia). It typically develops after prolonged treatment and may persist even after discontinuation of the drug.
C. Acute dystonia presents as sudden, sustained muscle contractions that can cause abnormal postures such as torticollis, oculogyric crisis, or jaw spasms. It usually occurs within hours to days of starting antipsychotic therapy. It is painful and dramatic but does not present as slow, writhing tongue movements or chewing difficulty.
D. Parkinsonism due to antipsychotics includes symptoms such as bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor, and a masked facial expression. It resembles Parkinson’s disease and results from dopamine blockade in the basal ganglia. However, it does not produce the choreoathetoid, repetitive oral-facial movements seen in tardive dyskinesia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Antidepressant medications are grouped into classes based on their effects on neurotransmitters such as serotonin and norepinephrine. Some classes carry significantly higher risks of systemic toxicity, particularly involving the cardiovascular system. Tricyclic antidepressants are especially known for their narrow therapeutic index and direct effects on cardiac conduction pathways. Recognizing which class poses the greatest cardiac risk is critical for safe prescribing and overdose management.
Rationale:
A. SNRIs increase levels of serotonin and norepinephrine and may cause mild elevations in blood pressure and heart rate. However, they do not typically produce severe cardiac conduction abnormalities or life-threatening arrhythmias. Their cardiovascular risk is generally dose-dependent and less severe compared to tricyclic antidepressants.
B. TCAs, such as Amitriptyline, are strongly associated with cardiac toxicity due to their blockade of fast sodium channels in cardiac tissue. This leads to conduction delays, widened QRS complexes, arrhythmias, and potential cardiac arrest, especially in overdose. Their narrow therapeutic index makes them particularly dangerous compared to other antidepressants.
C. SSRIs are considered the safest class of antidepressants in terms of cardiac effects. While certain agents may cause mild QT prolongation at high doses, they rarely lead to significant arrhythmias or conduction disturbances. They are often preferred in patients with underlying cardiovascular disease.
D. MAOIs can cause hypertensive crises when combined with tyramine-containing foods, but this is a vascular effect rather than direct cardiac toxicity. They do not primarily disrupt cardiac conduction or cause arrhythmias in the same way as TCAs. Their risks are serious but mechanistically different from cardiotoxic effects seen with tricyclic antidepressants.
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