Which type of headache involves treatment of nonopioid analgesics (aspirin), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory (aspirin or ibuprofen, naproxen), analgesic- sedative combination (aspirin and butalbital (Fiornal)?
Stress headache
Cluster headache
Tension headache
Migraine headache
The Correct Answer is C
Tension-type headache is the most common form of primary headache and is typically associated with muscle tension, stress, and fatigue. It presents as a bilateral, dull, pressure-like pain often described as a tight band around the head. Management focuses on symptomatic relief using nonopioid analgesics and combination medications. Unlike migraines or cluster headaches, it usually lacks significant neurological or autonomic features.
Rationale:
A. "Stress headache" is a colloquial term often used by patients to describe a tension headache, but it is not the formal medical classification. While stress is a primary trigger for tension-type headaches, the pharmacological protocols used, such as aspirin or butalbital combinations, are specifically categorized under the clinical heading of "Tension Headache",
B. Cluster headache is characterized by severe unilateral periorbital pain accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as lacrimation, nasal congestion, and ptosis. Treatment typically involves oxygen therapy and triptans rather than simple analgesics. Nonopioid analgesics are generally ineffective due to the intensity of the pain.
C. Tension headache is appropriately treated with nonopioid analgesics such as aspirin, NSAIDs like ibuprofen or naproxen, and combination products like aspirin with butalbital (e.g., Fiorinal). These medications target mild to moderate pain and muscle tension. Sedative combinations may also help relieve associated stress and muscle contraction contributing to the headache.
D. Migraine headache involves moderate to severe unilateral throbbing pain often associated with nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia. While NSAIDs may be used in mild cases, treatment often requires triptans, antiemetics, or preventive medications. The use of butalbital combinations is generally discouraged due to the risk of rebound headaches and dependency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Management of Bipolar disorder often requires combination pharmacotherapy to address both acute symptoms and long-term stabilization. Lithium is effective for maintenance therapy and prevention of mood episodes, but additional medications may be needed during acute exacerbations. Risperidone is commonly added to control acute manic symptoms such as agitation, psychosis, and behavioral dysregulation. Combination therapy enhances symptom control and improves patient stability.
Rationale:
A. Elevating mood during depressive episodes is not the primary role of risperidone. While some atypical antipsychotics have antidepressant effects, risperidone is mainly used for controlling psychosis and mania. Mood elevation in depression is managed with antidepressants or mood stabilizers rather than this medication.
B. Preventing recurrence of depressive episodes is primarily achieved with mood stabilizers like lithium. Although some antipsychotics may contribute to mood stabilization, risperidone is not specifically indicated for preventing depressive relapses. Its main benefit lies in acute symptom control rather than long-term prevention of depression.
C. Managing tremors associated with lithium use is not an indication for risperidone. Lithium-induced tremors are usually managed by dose adjustment or medications such as beta-blockers. Adding an antipsychotic would not address this side effect and may introduce additional adverse effects.
D. Helping control symptoms during manic episodes is the correct rationale for adding risperidone. It works by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors, reducing agitation, hallucinations, and impulsivity seen in mania. This makes it effective as an adjunct to lithium in managing acute manic phases.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Opioid analgesics are classified based on their activity at opioid receptors as full agonists, partial agonists, or agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonist opioids stimulate certain receptors while blocking others, producing analgesia with a lower risk of respiratory depression compared to full agonists. These drugs are often used in specific pain management situations or to reduce abuse potential. Understanding these classifications is essential for safe opioid selection and preventing adverse effects.
Rationale:
A. Nalbuphine is an agonist-antagonist opioid that acts as a kappa receptor agonist and a mu receptor antagonist. This dual action provides analgesia while limiting the degree of respiratory depression and euphoria. It is commonly used for moderate to severe pain and is known for having a ceiling effect on respiratory depression.
B. Pentazocine is another agonist-antagonist opioid that stimulates kappa receptors and partially blocks mu receptors. It produces analgesia but may also cause side effects such as dysphoria and hallucinations due to its receptor profile. It is classified clearly within the agonist-antagonist group.
C. Buprenorphine functions as a partial agonist at mu receptors and an antagonist at kappa receptors, placing it within the agonist-antagonist category. It is used for both pain management and opioid dependence treatment due to its ceiling effect on respiratory depression and lower abuse potential.
D. Morphine is a full opioid agonist that strongly activates mu receptors without antagonist activity. It produces potent analgesia but carries a higher risk of respiratory depression, dependence, and euphoria. Because it lacks antagonist properties, it does not belong to the agonist-antagonist class.
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