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Which women should undergo prenatal testing for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A.

All women, regardless of risk factors

B.

Women who have had a sexually transmitted infection (STI)

C.

Women who have had more than one sexual partner

D.

Woman who are monogamous with their partner

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Routine prenatal HIV screening is recommended for all pregnant women, regardless of identified risk factors. Universal testing helps identify undiagnosed HIV early, allowing for timely antiretroviral therapy, which significantly reduces the risk of maternal-to-child transmission. This approach avoids missed diagnoses that can occur when testing is based only on perceived risk.
B. Women with a history of STIs are at increased risk for HIV and should be tested; however, limiting testing only to this group would miss many cases. Therefore, this option is incomplete and not the most appropriate answer.
C. Having multiple sexual partners increases the risk for HIV infection, but prenatal HIV testing is not limited to women with this risk factor. Universal screening is recommended instead.
D. Even women who are monogamous may be at risk if their partner is infected or has other risk factors. For this reason, monogamy does not eliminate the need for prenatal HIV testing.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. December 7, 2025: This date is over a year late, likely due to miscalculation in applying Naegele’s Rule.

B. To calculate the expected date of birth (EDB), use Naegele’s Rule, which estimates a 40-week gestation from the first day of the last menstrual period:

  • Start with the LMP: March 14, 2024
  • Add 1 year: March 14, 2025
  • Subtract 3 months: December 14, 2024
  • Add 7 days: December 21, 2024

This calculation assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle and provides a standard method for estimating the due date.

C. December 17, 2024: This is four days early, possibly due to an arithmetic error in adding 7 days.

D. November 17, 2024: This is too early, likely due to subtracting months incorrectly or misinterpreting the rule.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Subinvolution of the uterus is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs more than 24 hours after delivery (often 1–6 weeks postpartum). It is commonly related to retained placental fragments or infection, leading to failure of the uterus to return to its normal size and tone, resulting in excessive bleeding.
B. Cervical lacerations typically cause early postpartum hemorrhage immediately after birth and are associated with a firm uterus and continuous bleeding, not late PPH.
C. Uterine inversion is a rare, acute obstetric emergency that occurs shortly after delivery and causes early postpartum hemorrhage, severe pain, and shock.
D. Defective vascularity of the placenta is not a typical cause of late postpartum hemorrhage; placental abnormalities are more commonly associated with antepartum or early postpartum bleeding.

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