While assessing an older adult client, the nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD) with the head of the client's bed elevated 45 degrees. What does this finding indicate?
Jugular vein atherosclerosis
Increased fluid volume
Decreased fluid volume
Incompetent jugular vein valves
The Correct Answer is B
Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a clinical sign that indicates increased fluid volume or fluid overload in the cardiovascular system. When the head of the client's bed is elevated at 45 degrees, the jugular veins should normally be flat or slightly distended. However, if the jugular veins appear engorged and bulging, it suggests that there is an increased amount of blood returning to the right side of the heart and is unable to be efficiently pumped forward, leading to jugular venous distention.
JVD is commonly seen in conditions such as heart failure, where the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently is compromised, leading to fluid accumulation in the veins and eventually causing jugular venous distention.
Option A, jugular vein atherosclerosis, is not a common cause of JVD. Atherosclerosis refers to the build-up of plaque within arteries, not veins.
Option C, decreased fluid volume, would lead to dehydration and decreased venous filling, which would not cause jugular venous distention. It would lead to flat or sunken jugular veins.
Option D, incompetent jugular vein valves, would not cause jugular venous distention with the head of the bed elevated. Incompetent valves may lead to venous reflux or backward flow of blood, but it would not lead to the distention of the jugular veins in this position.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client presenting to the emergency department with a severe headache, nausea, and significantly elevated blood pressure (BP) of 238/118 mm Hg indicates a hypertensive crisis, which is a severe and potentially life-threatening condition. In such cases, the nurse's priority is to assess for potential triggers or exacerbating factors for the hypertensive crisis.
Option B, "Have there been recent stressful events in your life?" is the most relevant question to follow up on the findings. Stress is a known trigger for acute elevations in blood pressure, and severe stress can lead to a hypertensive crisis in individuals with a history of hypertension. Identifying recent stressful events may help the nurse understand potential contributing factors to the client's current condition and guide the management plan.
Option A, "Have you recently taken any antihistamines?" is not the most relevant question in this situation. Antihistamines are not typically associated with causing a hypertensive crisis. While certain medications and substances can interact with antihypertensive medications, causing an increase in BP, the severity of the client's symptoms and the extremely high BP reading suggest that a more immediate concern needs to be addressed.
Option C, "Have you consistently taken your medications?" is important for assessing medication adherence, but it may not directly explain the acute hypertensive crisis. The client's current symptoms and BP reading require more immediate investigation into potential triggers.
Option D, "Did you take any aspirin (or Tylenol) today?" is relevant to assess whether the client has recently taken any over-the-counter medications that could potentially interact with their prescribed antihypertensive drugs. However, it is not the most critical question to address the hypertensive crisis and the severity of the client's symptoms.
Given the severity of the client's presentation, the nurse should also promptly initiate appropriate interventions to address the hypertensive crisis, such as administering antihypertensive medications as prescribed, monitoring vital signs frequently, and notifying the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client taking isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine (BiDil) and experiencing a headache should be assessed first. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine is a medication combination used to treat heart failure, particularly in African American patients. However, one of the side effects of hydralazine is headaches.
Headache in a client taking this medication may indicate increased blood pressure as a compensatory response to vasodilation. If not addressed promptly, it may lead to worsening heart failure or other complications. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's blood pressure, signs of worsening heart failure, and evaluate the severity and duration of the headache.
The other options may also require attention:
A) A client taking digoxin with a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L needs assessment, as hypokalemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. However, the headache in the BiDil client takes priority due to the potential complications related to increased blood pressure.
B) A client taking captopril and experiencing a frequent nonproductive cough may indicate a side effect of the medication. While it should be assessed, it is not as immediately concerning as the headache in the BiDil client.
C) A client taking carvedilol (Coreg) with a heart rate of 58 is within an acceptable range, especially if the client is tolerating it well without symptoms. It may not require immediate assessment unless there are other concerning symptoms.
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