While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent wound drainage. Previously, the wound was inflamed and tender but without drainage. Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Monitor the client's white blood cell count (WBC).
Request a culture and sensitivity of the wound.
Cleanse the wound with a sterile saline solution.
Determine if the drainage has an unpleasant odor.
The Correct Answer is B
Brief introduction:
Purulent drainage signifies a pyogenic infection characterized by leukocyte infiltration and necrotic debris. Clinical manifestations include localized erythema, warmth, and edema, often progressing to systemic febrile responses if the causative pathogen proliferates within the subcutaneous tissue layers.
Rationale:
A. Monitoring the total leukocyte count identifies systemic inflammatory responses but does not pinpoint the specific microbial etiology. While leukocytosis indicates an active immune response, it is a nonspecific finding that does not facilitate the targeted antibiotic therapy required to resolve a localized postoperative infection.
B. Obtaining a culture and sensitivity is the definitive nursing action to identify the specific infectious agent present. This diagnostic procedure ensures the clinician can initiate pathogen-specific antimicrobial treatment, which is essential for preventing sepsis and promoting secondary intention healing in contaminated surgical sites.
C. Irrigating a surgical site with isotonic solutions removes surface debris but does not address the underlying bacterial colonization. Although debridement is a component of wound care, performing this before obtaining a specimen may contaminate the results or reduce the bacterial load needed for accurate laboratory identification.
D. Assessing for malodorous discharge provides clinical data regarding possible anaerobic involvement but remains a subjective observation. While odor can suggest specific bacteria like Pseudomonas or Proteus, it is diagnosticly inferior to laboratory culture results which provide definitive evidence for the required clinical intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Airborne transmission involves the spread of infectious droplets smaller than 5 micrometers that remain suspended in the air for prolonged periods. Effective containment requires a negative-pressure isolation room where air is filtered and exhausted outdoors to prevent pathogen migration into hospital corridors. Healthcare workers must utilize a fitted N95 respirator to prevent the inhalation of microscopic nuclei capable of reaching the distal alveoli.
Rationale:
A. Scarlet fever and bacterial pneumonia are transmitted via large droplets expelled through coughing or sneezing. These pathogens do not remain suspended in air and typically require droplet precautions, including a standard surgical mask. Negative airflow is not indicated for these conditions as they do not pose an airborne risk.
B. A positive Mantoux test and acid-fast bacillus in sputum are definitive indicators of active Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This pathogen is the classic example of an airborne threat necessitating a monitored negative-pressure environment and particulate respirators. Failure to implement these barriers allows the bacilli to circulate throughout the ventilation system.
C. Scabies is a parasitic infestation transmitted through direct skin-to-skin contact or contaminated linens. Management requires contact precautions, which include the use of gowns and gloves to prevent transmission to staff or other clients. Air filtration and specialized masks provide no benefit in preventing the spread of sarcoptes scabiei.
D. Herpes simplex II is a viral infection characterized by vesicular lesions and is spread primarily through direct contact with infected secretions. While highly contagious through touch, the virus is not aerosolized and does not require specialized respiratory protection. Standard and contact precautions are sufficient to manage the risk during an active outbreak.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Brief introduction:
Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening supraglottic inflammation typically caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b. Rapid swelling of the epiglottis can lead to total airway occlusion within minutes or hours. Classic clinical presentation includes the "four Ds": drooling, dysphagia, dysphonia, and distressed inspiratory efforts, requiring immediate medical intervention to secure a patent airway via intubation or tracheostomy.
Rationale:
A. Avoiding lying the toddler flat on the back is a general comfort measure for congestion, but it is not the priority instruction. While an upright position may help with drainage, it does not address the high-risk potential for sudden obstruction seen in pediatric respiratory emergencies. The nurse must focus on identifying signs of imminent respiratory failure.
B. Monitoring closely for drooling and agitation is the most critical instruction. These symptoms indicate that the toddler cannot swallow secretions due to severe edema and is experiencing hypoxia. Agitation is an early sign of impending obstruction, and its presence requires immediate emergency evaluation to prevent complete respiratory arrest and ensure patient safety.
C. Inspecting the throat for exudate is strictly contraindicated if epiglottitis is suspected. Any manipulation of the posterior pharynx or use of a tongue blade can trigger reflex laryngospasm, leading to immediate and total airway blockage. The nurse should instruct the family never to attempt to visualize the throat during a respiratory crisis.
D. Listening for the development of hoarseness is a common assessment for viral croup or laryngitis. However, in cases of severe supraglottic swelling, the voice is more likely to be muffled or quiet rather than hoarse. The family should prioritize watching for stridor and drooling, which are much more indicative of a life-threatening upper airway emergency.
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