While monitoring a patient receiving a blood transfusion, the nurse notes an abnormal drop in blood pressure to 90/50 mm Hg and an increase in heart rate to 118 beats per minute. The patient reports chills and lower back pain.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is the patient experiencing?
Type I.
Type II.
Type III.
Type IV.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Type I hypersensitivity, or immediate hypersensitivity, is IgE-mediated and typically presents rapidly with symptoms like urticaria (hives), angioedema, bronchospasm, and hypotension due to massive mast cell degranulation and histamine release. While it can cause hypotension, the classic triad of chills, lower back pain, and profound hypotension/tachycardia is not primarily characteristic of this type during a blood transfusion.
Choice B rationale
Type II hypersensitivity, a cytotoxic reaction, is the classic mechanism for an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR). The patient's pre-existing antibodies (IgG or IgM) bind to antigens on the transfused red blood cells (RBCs), leading to complement activation. This massive intravascular hemolysis releases inflammatory mediators, causing the characteristic triad of chills, back pain (due to renal damage/ischemia), hypotension, and tachycardia.
Choice C rationale
Type III hypersensitivity is an immune-complex reaction where soluble antigens and antibodies (IgG or IgM) form complexes that deposit in tissues, often manifesting as vasculitis, arthritis, or nephritis. While it can occur in delayed transfusion reactions, it is not the primary mechanism for the immediate, severe AHTR symptoms described, which are dominated by cell lysis.
Choice D rationale
Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed, cell-mediated reaction involving T-lymphocytes and macrophages. It typically takes 24 to 72 hours to manifest and is responsible for contact dermatitis or the tuberculin skin test. The acute, life-threatening symptoms observed within minutes of a transfusion reaction exclude this slower, non-antibody-mediated response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Diphenhydramine, an H1-receptor antagonist (first-generation antihistamine), possesses significant anticholinergic properties. These properties can cause urinary retention by inhibiting detrusor muscle contraction and constricting the bladder sphincter. Assessing the bladder for distension first will determine the immediate problem and guide intervention, with a normal post-void residual volume being less than 100 mL.
Choice B rationale
Encouraging increased fluid intake might worsen the patient's condition by increasing bladder volume and potentially exacerbating urinary retention due to the anticholinergic effects of the diphenhydramine. This action should be deferred until bladder emptying status has been accurately assessed, as further filling an already distended bladder is detrimental.
Choice C rationale
While urinary catheterization may be required for severe retention, it is an invasive procedure with risks like urinary tract infection (UTI). It is premature to request this before performing a non-invasive assessment like palpating or scanning the bladder for distension to confirm the need for intervention.
Choice D rationale
Requesting an intravenous (IV) fluid bolus would be contraindicated if the patient is experiencing urinary retention. Similar to encouraging oral fluids, a bolus would increase circulatory volume and urine production, placing greater strain on a distended bladder and potentially leading to bladder overstretching or rupture if not addressed.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) for nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid) specifies that it is authorized for use in adults and pediatric patients who are 12 years of age and older and weigh at least 40 kg. Stating only the age is insufficient, as the weight criterion is also essential for safe and effective dosing in the pediatric population, ensuring appropriate pharmacokinetics and minimizing toxicity risks.
Choice B rationale
Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid) must be initiated as soon as possible after diagnosis of COVID-19 and within 5 days of symptom onset. This timeframe is crucial because the drug works by inhibiting the SARS-CoV-2 main protease, which is most effective during the early viral replication phase before the viral load peaks and significant organ damage occurs, thus maximizing therapeutic benefit.
Choice C rationale
A rash, especially one that is severe or progresses, can be a sign of a hypersensitivity reaction to nirmatrelvir or ritonavir, such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) or Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN). The patient must report this immediately so the medication can be discontinued and appropriate supportive care initiated to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice D rationale
Dysgeusia (altered taste sensation), often described as a metallic taste, is a frequently reported adverse effect of nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid). This occurs due to the drug's excretion in saliva. Informing the patient proactively helps to manage expectations and ensure adherence to the medication regimen despite this temporary and bothersome side effect.
Choice E rationale
Significant weight gain is not a recognized common or serious adverse reaction of nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid). Common side effects include dysgeusia, diarrhea, hypertension, and myalgia. Weight loss might be seen in the context of severe COVID-19 infection, but not as an expected drug effect.
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