Women with an intact uterus treated for HRT must be prescribed both estrogen and progestin due to:
Reduced risk for colon cancer with combined therapy
Lower risk of developing venous thromboembolism with combined therapy
Increased risk for endometrial cancer if estrogen is used unopposed
Combination therapy providing the best relief of menopausal vasomotor symptoms
The Correct Answer is C
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is used to manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and sleep disturbances by replacing declining estrogen levels. In women with an intact uterus, estrogen therapy must be carefully balanced with progestin to protect the endometrial lining. Unopposed estrogen stimulates endometrial proliferation, which increases the risk of abnormal hyperplasia and malignancy. Understanding this balance is essential for safe long-term hormone therapy.
Rationale:
A. Reduced risk for colon cancer is not the primary reason for adding progestin to hormone therapy. While some studies suggest combined hormone therapy may have minor effects on colorectal cancer risk, this is not the clinical rationale for dual therapy. The key concern in prescribing HRT is endometrial safety, not cancer prevention in the colon.
B. Combined hormone therapy does not reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). In fact, both estrogen-only and combined therapies can increase thrombotic risk depending on route and patient factors. The addition of progestin is specifically for endometrial protection, not for reducing clotting risk.
C. Unopposed estrogen significantly increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer in women with an intact uterus. Therefore, a progestin must be added to counteract estrogen’s proliferative effect on the endometrial lining. This protective mechanism is the primary reason for prescribing combination therapy in hormone replacement regimens.
D. While combination therapy may help relieve menopausal vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes, this is not the reason progestin is required. Hormone replacement therapy is primarily structured to balance estrogen’s effects on the endometrium rather than to enhance symptom relief. Symptom control is a benefit, but not the safety indication for adding progestin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation antipsychotic used in schizophrenia, primarily effective for positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. However, typical antipsychotics can worsen or fail to improve negative symptoms like flat affect, social withdrawal, and poor self-care. Negative symptoms are more closely linked to dopamine dysfunction in the mesocortical pathway and respond better to medications with broader dopamine-serotonin activity. Treatment adjustment is often needed when negative symptoms predominate or worsen.
Rationale:
A. Switching to lithium such as Lithium (Lithobid) is not appropriate because lithium is used for bipolar disorder and mood stabilization, not for primary treatment of schizophrenia negative symptoms. It does not address psychotic symptoms or negative symptom clusters such as avolition or flat affect.
B. Switching to another typical antipsychotic like Haloperidol (Haldol) would likely not improve negative symptoms and may further exacerbate them due to strong dopamine D2 blockade. Typical antipsychotics are more effective for positive symptoms and are associated with extrapyramidal side effects, which can worsen functional impairment and social withdrawal.
C. Switching to an atypical antipsychotic such as Risperidone (Risperdal) is appropriate because atypical agents target both dopamine and serotonin receptors, providing better coverage for both positive and negative symptoms. These medications are more effective in improving affect, motivation, and social functioning compared to typical antipsychotics. They also have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects at standard doses.
D. Increasing the dose of Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is not appropriate because it may worsen side effects without improving negative symptoms. Higher doses increase the risk of sedation, anticholinergic effects, and extrapyramidal symptoms, all of which can further impair functioning and quality of life. Negative symptoms are not dose-responsive to typical antipsychotic escalation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Impetigo is a highly contagious superficial bacterial skin infection commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureusand sometimes Streptococcus pyogenes. It typically presents as honey-colored crusted lesions and is most often managed with topical or systemic antibiotics depending on severity and extent. Localized, mild cases are best treated with topical agents to limit systemic exposure and effectively eradicate the infection. Early treatment also helps prevent spread to others and further skin involvement.
Rationale:
A. Miconazole (Lotrimin) is an antifungal agent used to treat fungal infections such as tinea corporis or candidiasis. Since impetigo is a bacterial infection, miconazole has no activity against Staphylococcus aureusor Streptococcus pyogenes. Using an antifungal would not resolve the infection and could allow progression or spread.
B. Mupirocin (Bactroban) is the first-line treatment for mild, localized impetigo. It works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, effectively targeting common causative organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus. For limited lesions, topical therapy is preferred because it is highly effective, reduces systemic side effects, and directly treats the infected skin area.
C. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is an oral antibiotic reserved for more extensive, severe, or systemic infections. While it has activity against common impetigo pathogens, it is not necessary for mild localized lesions. Oral therapy increases systemic exposure and is typically avoided when topical treatment is sufficient.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is effective against many gram-positive organisms and may be used for more widespread impetigo. However, for 2–3 localized lesions, systemic therapy is not indicated as first-line management. Topical treatment is equally effective in mild cases and minimizes unnecessary antibiotic exposure.
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