You are assigned to care for a patient with diabetes insipidus. Which of the following will NOT be included in your assessment of this patient?
Strict I&Os
Checking sodium level trends
Blood pressure monitoring
Ambulation trial with O2 monitoring
The Correct Answer is D
A. Strict I&Os is incorrect because monitoring intake and output is essential in diabetes insipidus (DI). Patients with DI produce large volumes of dilute urine, and careful measurement of fluid balance is critical to detect dehydration and guide fluid replacement therapy.
B. Checking sodium level trends is incorrect because hypernatremia is a common complication of DI due to excessive water loss. Frequent monitoring of sodium levels allows nurses to detect electrolyte imbalances early and adjust fluids or medications appropriately.
C. Blood pressure monitoring is incorrect because patients with DI are at risk for hypotension secondary to fluid loss and dehydration. Monitoring blood pressure helps assess the patient’s hemodynamic status and response to fluid replacement.
D. Ambulation trial with O2 monitoring is correct because this is not a primary assessment for DI. While ambulation and oxygen monitoring may be indicated for other conditions (e.g., respiratory or cardiac issues), they are not directly related to the pathophysiology or complications of DI and therefore are not a routine part of the nursing assessment for this p
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Renal biopsy is correct because it is the gold standard for diagnosing intrarenal (intrinsic) causes of AKI, such as acute tubular necrosis, glomerulonephritis, or interstitial nephritis. A biopsy allows direct histological examinationof kidney tissue, confirming the exact type of injury and guiding treatment decisions.
B. CT scan with IV contrast is incorrect because contrast media is nephrotoxicand can actually precipitate contrast-induced AKI. While CT may detect structural abnormalities or obstruction, it does not confirm intrinsic renal pathology.
C. MRI with Gadolinium is incorrect because gadolinium-based contrast is also nephrotoxicin patients with renal impairment, and MRI primarily provides structural imaging rather than histological confirmation of intrarenal injury.
D. ABG is incorrect because arterial blood gas analysis evaluates acid-base balance, oxygenation, and ventilation, not the underlying renal pathology. While ABGs may show metabolic acidosis secondary to AKI, they cannot confirm intrarenal causes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Mannitol is correct because it is an osmotic diuretic commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure. Mannitol increases plasma osmolality, drawing water out of cerebral tissue and into the intravascular space, which decreases cerebral edema and lowers ICP. It is frequently ordered in patients with increased ICP due to intracranial bleeding, such as a subdural hemorrhage.
B. Ibuprofen is incorrect because nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the risk of bleeding and do not reduce intracranial pressure. In a patient with an active intracranial hemorrhage, ibuprofen may worsen bleeding and is contraindicated.
C. IV heparin is incorrect because anticoagulants increase the risk of continued or worsening intracranial bleeding. Heparin would be avoided in a patient with a subdural hemorrhage unless there is a compelling and unrelated indication.
D. Warfarin is incorrect because it is an oral anticoagulant that significantly increases bleeding risk. In the setting of a subdural hemorrhage and increased ICP, warfarin would worsen hemorrhage and is contraindicated.
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