You are planning to administer a live virus Varicella vaccine to a 4 year old child. Which of the following would be a contraindication to the vaccine?
the child had a temp of 101.0 the last time he received the vaccine
the child had pain at the injection site the last time he received this vaccine
the child is on steroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis
the child is allergic to strawberries
The Correct Answer is C
Live attenuated vaccines such as the Varicella vaccine rely on controlled viral replication to stimulate cell-mediated immunity and long-term antibody production. Contraindications include conditions causing significant immunosuppression, as impaired T-cell function increases risk of uncontrolled viral replication and vaccine-associated disease.
Rationale:
A. A prior mild post-vaccination fever of 101°F is not a contraindication to further doses. Low-grade febrile reactions are common and reflect normal immune activation, not hypersensitivity or vaccine failure.
B. Localized injection site pain is an expected adverse effect following vaccination. It reflects localized inflammatory response and does not indicate allergy or contraindication to future doses.
C. Steroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis indicates immunosuppression, which is a contraindication to live attenuated vaccines like Varicella. Suppressed T-cell function increases risk of uncontrolled viral replication and vaccine-related infection.
D. Strawberry allergy is unrelated to vaccine components. Food allergies without known vaccine excipient sensitivity (such as gelatin or neomycin) do not contraindicate administration of the Varicella vaccine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Traction in pediatric femoral fractures requires vigilant monitoring for neurovascular compromise, compartment syndrome, vascular perfusion deficits, and peripheral nerve injury. Children are at increased risk due to smaller limb compartments and rapid progression of ischemic damage when circulation is impaired under immobilization devices.
Rationale:
A. Abdominal assessment evaluates gastrointestinal function and possible distension but is not the priority in traction care. It does not directly reflect limb perfusion or detect complications related to skeletal immobilization.
B. Listening to breath sounds assesses respiratory status, which is important in general nursing care but not directly related to traction complications. There is no immediate indication of respiratory compromise in this scenario.
C. PERRLA and hand grasps assess neurologic function of the upper extremities and cranial nerves, which are not directly affected by femoral traction. These findings do not provide information about lower limb vascular integrity.
D. Neurovascular checks assess circulation, sensation, movement, capillary refill, and pulses in the affected extremity. This is the highest priority because traction can impair blood flow and nerve function, leading to ischemia, tissue damage, and potential limb-threatening complications if not detected early.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Spina bifida occulta is a mild neural tube defect characterized by incomplete fusion of vertebral arches without herniation of meninges or neural tissue. It is often asymptomatic but may present with cutaneous stigmata, subtle vertebral defects, and localized dysraphism markers over the lumbosacral spine during childhood.
Rationale:
A. Hydrocephalus is associated with more severe forms of neural tube defects such as myelomeningocele due to associated Chiari II malformation. It is not typically present in spina bifida occulta, which lacks neural tissue involvement and intracranial CSF flow obstruction.
B. Paralysis of the legs results from spinal cord involvement and nerve root damage, which occurs in myelomeningocele. Spina bifida occulta does not expose neural tissue, so motor deficits and lower limb paralysis are generally absent.
C. A hairy patch over the lumbosacral region is a classic cutaneous marker of spina bifida occulta. It reflects underlying vertebral arch defect and is often accompanied by skin dimpling or lipoma without neurologic impairment or exposed neural elements.
D. A large back mass containing spinal cord represents myelomeningocele, the most severe form of spina bifida. It involves herniation of meninges and neural tissue, leading to neurological deficits and is not consistent with the occult form.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
