You are the registered nurse on a busy medical-surgical unit. After receiving shift report, you must determine which patients to assess first.
Based on the principles of clinical urgency, ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), and safety, select all the patients you should prioritize for immediate assessment. Select all that apply.
A 22-year-old post-op appendectomy patient asking to be assisted to the bathroom for the first time since surgery.
A 60-year-old diabetic patient with a blood glucose of 58 mg/dL who is slightly diaphoretic.
A 43-year-old with a history of heart failure who has 2+ edema in both ankles and gained 3 lbs overnight.
A 76-year-old patient with COPD who is short of breath and has an oxygen saturation of 88
A 40-year-old patient newly admitted with abdominal pain who is now reporting shoulder pain and lightheadedness.
A 54-year-old postoperative patient reporting pain at 7/10 who is due for oral pain medication in 15 minutes.
Correct Answer : B,D,E
Choice A rationale
Assisting a stable post-operative patient to the bathroom is a routine task related to mobility and safety. While the first time out of bed after surgery requires nursing supervision to prevent falls, it does not take priority over patients with physiological instability or acute distress. This patient is not currently experiencing a life-threatening complication or an airway, breathing, or circulation crisis that would necessitate an immediate emergency assessment over other higher-acuity clients.
Choice B rationale
Hypoglycemia, defined as a blood glucose level less than 70 mg/dL, is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. A glucose level of 58 mg/dL combined with diaphoresis indicates that the body is releasing sympathetic hormones to counteract the low sugar. If left untreated, the patient can experience seizures, coma, or permanent brain damage because the brain relies solely on glucose for energy. This patient must be assessed and treated with fast-acting carbohydrates immediately.
Choice C rationale
Ankle edema and a weight gain of 3 lbs overnight are common signs of fluid volume overload in heart failure patients. While these findings indicate a need for a change in treatment, such as adjusting diuretics, they represent a chronic condition that is currently stable rather than an acute emergency. Normal weight fluctuation is usually less than 2 lbs daily. This patient is a lower priority compared to those with respiratory distress or symptomatic hypoglycemia.
Choice D rationale
The patient with COPD is experiencing acute breathing difficulty and an oxygen saturation of 88 percent. In many clinical settings, a saturation below 90 percent is considered hypoxemia. Because "Breathing" is the second priority in the ABC framework, this patient requires an immediate assessment of lung sounds, respiratory rate, and oxygen delivery. Failure to intervene promptly could lead to respiratory failure or respiratory acidosis as the patient struggles to maintain adequate gas exchange.
Choice E rationale
Newly reported shoulder pain and lightheadedness in a patient with abdominal pain can indicate a ruptured organ or internal bleeding, leading to referred pain via the phrenic nerve. Lightheadedness suggests a "Circulation" issue, possibly due to hemorrhage and subsequent hypotension or hypovolemia. This combination of symptoms suggests a potentially catastrophic surgical emergency that must be prioritized to prevent circulatory collapse. The sudden change in status makes this patient a high-priority assessment.
Choice F rationale
Pain management is an important aspect of nursing care, and a pain score of 7/10 indicates significant discomfort. However, pain is generally considered a psychosocial or "Tier 2" priority unless it is associated with an acute myocardial infarction or other life-threatening ischemia. While the nurse should address this patient as soon as possible, they do not take precedence over patients experiencing hypoglycemia, respiratory distress, or signs of internal hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This communication is insufficient because it lacks specific instructions and timeframes required for safe delegation. It fails to define the desired outcome or provide parameters for reporting back to the nurse. Effective communication must be clear and concise. This statement is too vague to ensure that the patient receives the necessary quality of care or that the unlicensed assistive personnel understands the specific safety requirements involved in the task.
Choice B rationale
While this choice provides more detail than the first, it remains incomplete regarding the specific timeline for the task and the reporting expectations. Checking the condition of the feet is a general instruction but lacks the precision of what specific findings would warrant an immediate call to the supervising nurse. In home health, where the nurse is not physically present, the delegation must include explicit triggers for communication to ensure patient safety and monitoring.
Choice C rationale
This response is unprofessional and demonstrates poor leadership by expressing doubt in the competence of the unlicensed assistive personnel. Effective delegation requires a supportive environment and clear instructions, not criticism or ambiguous tasks. Labeling the patient solely by their physical condition without providing structured guidance on how to perform skin care safely violates the principles of delegation. It fails to provide any specific clinical parameters for the assistant to follow or report.
Choice D rationale
This choice follows the five rights of delegation by providing a clear, concise, and complete set of instructions. It specifies the exact task, the time by which it must be finished, and the exact clinical observations that require a follow-up phone call. By mentioning nail discoloration and redness, the nurse gives the assistant specific indicators of potential infection or circulatory issues. This ensures the nurse is notified promptly of any changes in the patient's condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This term refers to an unplanned event that did not result in injury, illness, or damage but had the potential to do so. In this scenario, the patient actually received ten times the prescribed dose and became unresponsive. Because actual harm occurred and the patient required an intensive care unit transfer, this does not meet the definition of a near miss, which relies on the absence of harm.
Choice B rationale
This is a broad term describing any variation from the intended medication administration process, including wrong dose, wrong patient, or wrong time. While a ten-fold insulin overdose is certainly a medication variance, the term is too general for this specific classification. The Joint Commission uses more specific terminology to categorize errors that result in severe physical injury or death, moving beyond simple variance reporting in clinical settings.
Choice C rationale
This is defined by The Joint Commission as an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury. A medication error leading to a patient being unresponsive and requiring intensive care fits this criteria perfectly. These events signal a need for immediate investigation and response. They are called sentinel because they signal the need for a root cause analysis to prevent any future recurrence of such a life-threatening mistake.
Choice D rationale
This classification applies to incidents that are documented but did not result in any discernible harm to the patient. Since the patient in this case became unresponsive and needed higher level care in the intensive care unit, harm is clearly present. Therefore, this incident cannot be classified as occurring without harm. The severity of the physiological decline and the resulting transfer necessitate a more serious categorization than a standard reportable occurrence.
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