A 28-year-old female patient presents to the mental health clinic with symptoms of anxiety and depression following a recent sexual assault. What is the most appropriate initial intervention to support her mental health recovery?
Provide a safe environment and validate her feelings to help reduce anxiety
Suggest that she focus on her work and hobbies to distract herself from the trauma
Encourage her to discuss the details of the assault to help process the trauma
Refer her to a psychiatrist for immediate medication management
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: A safe environment and validation reduce anxiety by calming amygdala-driven fear responses. Scientifically, this lowers cortisol, stabilizing emotional regulation post-sexual assault. Creating safety fosters trust, mitigating trauma’s neurobiological impact and supporting recovery by addressing immediate psychological distress and preventing PTSD progression.
Choice B reason: Focusing on work and hobbies may distract but doesn’t address trauma’s root. Sexual assault triggers intense stress responses, like elevated cortisol. Scientifically, distraction without processing risks suppressing emotions, potentially worsening depression or anxiety by delaying engagement with trauma’s neurobiological and psychological effects.
Choice C reason: Encouraging detailed assault discussion risks re-traumatization initially. Scientifically, premature processing can heighten amygdala activity and cortisol, exacerbating anxiety or PTSD symptoms. A safe environment is needed first to stabilize the patient, ensuring emotional readiness for trauma processing through structured therapeutic interventions.
Choice D reason: Immediate psychiatric referral for medication is premature without assessment. Scientifically, unguided medication may disrupt neurotransmitter balance, like serotonin, without addressing trauma’s specific psychological needs. This risks inappropriate treatment, delaying stabilization of trauma-related hyperarousal and hindering effective mental health recovery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Sleep patterns impact dementia but aren’t the priority for acute confusion. Disrupted sleep may exacerbate agitation via circadian rhythm disturbances, increasing cortisol. Scientifically, while sleep affects cognitive function, infection is a more urgent cause of acute changes, as it directly triggers neuroinflammatory responses, worsening confusion.
Choice B reason: Monitoring blood pressure is relevant for dementia patients with cardiovascular risks but not the priority for acute confusion. Hypertension may contribute to cognitive decline long-term. Scientifically, acute changes are more likely driven by infection or metabolic issues, which directly cause neuroinflammation or delirium, requiring immediate assessment.
Choice C reason: Nutritional status affects dementia progression but isn’t the primary cause of acute confusion. Malnutrition may exacerbate cognitive decline via metabolic deficiencies. Scientifically, acute agitation is more likely triggered by infection or medication, causing rapid neuroinflammatory changes, making nutritional assessment secondary to urgent causes like infection.
Choice D reason: Assessing for infection is critical, as it’s a common cause of acute confusion in dementia. Infections like UTIs trigger neuroinflammation, increasing cytokines and altering brain function. Scientifically, this causes delirium, worsening agitation and confusion, requiring immediate identification to treat the underlying cause and stabilize cognitive function.
Correct Answer is ["10"]
Explanation
Step 1 is: 40 mg ÷ 20 mg
Step 2 is: (40 ÷ 20) = 2
Step 3 is: 2 × 5 mL = 10 mL
Final answer = 10 mL
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