A 30-year-old at 32 weeks gestation reports severe headache and blurred vision. What complication should the nurse suspect?
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Preeclampsia with severe features
Normal pregnancy
Gestational diabetes
The Correct Answer is B
Preeclampsia with severe features is a multisystem disorder characterized by new-onset hypertension and end-organ dysfunction. Vasospasm and capillary leak within the cerebral vasculature cause increased intracranial pressure and retinal edema. This condition requires magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and possible urgent delivery.
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum: While this condition involves gastrointestinal distress, it does not typically present with hypertension or vision changes. Severe headaches are not a classic symptom of intractable vomiting. These neurological signs indicate a much more serious vascular complication of the late second or third trimester.
B. Preeclampsia with severe features: Frontal headaches and scotoma (blurred vision) are "warning signs" that the central nervous system is affected by vascular permeability. These symptoms often precede eclampsia, or generalized tonic-clonic seizures. This is a high-risk obstetric emergency that must be addressed immediately.
C. Normal pregnancy: Severe, persistent headaches and visual disturbances are never considered physiological findings in pregnancy. While minor discomforts are common, these specific symptoms warrant a full diagnostic workup for organ system failure. Dismissing them as normal poses a grave danger to the mother and fetus.
D. Gestational diabetes: Diabetes is primarily a metabolic condition that may cause fatigue or polyuria but does not acutely cause hypertensive headaches or blurred vision unless retinopathy is present. While it can co-exist with preeclampsia, these specific symptoms are the cardinal signs of a hypertensive crisis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a pathological state of intractable vomiting resulting in ketonuria, dehydration, and significant electrolyte depletion. The clinical management aims to restore hemodynamic stability and suppress the overactive emetic reflex. Interventions focus on maintaining metabolic homeostasis and preventing Wernicke’s encephalopathy through thiamine and fluid replacement.
A. Antiemetics: Pharmacological management using pyridoxine, doxylamine, or ondansetron is necessary to interrupt the vomiting cycle. These medications act on the chemoreceptor trigger zone or vestibular system to reduce nausea. Effective suppression of emesis allows for the gradual reintroduction of oral nutrition and hydration.
B. Fluid restriction: Restricting fluids is contraindicated and dangerous for a client already suffering from intravascular dehydration. Adequate hydration is the cornerstone of therapy to prevent renal failure and maintain uteroplacental perfusion. Restricting intake would exacerbate tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension.
C. Avoid triggers: Identifying and eliminating environmental stimuli like strong odors, flickering lights, or specific textures reduces sensory input to the emetic center. Behavioral modification is a non-pharmacological necessity to prevent recurrent episodes of nausea. This helps stabilize the gastric mucosa and CNS.
D. IV fluids: Intravenous rehydration with isotonic crystalloids is the priority intervention for clients unable to tolerate oral intake. This corrects volume deficits and replenishes depleted electrolytes like potassium and chloride. It is essential for reversing metabolic alkalosis caused by loss of gastric acid.
E. Small frequent meals: Once vomiting is controlled, consuming low-fat, high-carbohydrate snacks every 2 to 3 hours prevents an empty stomach. Maintaining stable blood glucose levels minimizes gastric contractions and acid irritation. This dietary strategy supports weight gain and fetal development.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Opioid-induced respiratory depression is a life-threatening complication characterized by a decreased respiratory rate and impaired gas exchange. Opioids act on the mu-receptors in the brainstem, reducing the responsiveness to carbon dioxide levels. Immediate reversal is necessary to prevent respiratory arrest and hypoxic brain injury.
A. Increase opioid use: Administering more opioids would further suppress the respiratory center in the medulla, leading to total apnea and death. This is the opposite of the required intervention. The goal is to discontinue or reverse the sedative effects of the medication.
B. Reassess in 1 hour: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute is a clinical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Waiting one hour would likely lead to severe hypercapnia, acidosis, and cardiopulmonary collapse. Frequent, minute-by-minute monitoring is required until the patient is stable.
C. Encourage ambulation: A patient with a respiratory rate of 8 is likely experiencing significant sedation and lethargy, making ambulation impossible and unsafe. Physical activity would increase oxygen demand that the compromised respiratory system cannot meet. The patient requires ventilatory support and reversal.
D. Administer naloxone: Naloxone is a competitive opioid antagonist that displaces opioids from their receptors, rapidly reversing respiratory and CNS depression. It must be administered intravenously in small, titrated doses to restore a safe respiratory rate without triggering acute withdrawal. It is the priority rescue medication.
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