A 49-year-old female patient has been taking gabapentin for 6 months. It has produced some relief for her neuropathic pain, but she still rates her average daily pain at about a 5. What would be the next most appropriate treatment?
Hydrocodone (Norco)
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Pregabalin (Lyrica)
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic and may be considered for severe pain, but it is not first-line for chronic neuropathic pain due to risk of dependence and side effects.
Choice B reason: Acetaminophen is effective for mild to moderate nociceptive pain but has limited efficacy in neuropathic pain.
Choice C reason: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant effective for neuropathic pain and could be considered, but switching to pregabalin is often preferred for patients already partially responsive to gabapentin due to similar mechanisms but potentially better efficacy.
Choice D reason: This choice is correct because pregabalin is a first-line agent for neuropathic pain and can be considered when gabapentin provides only partial relief. It works similarly but has different pharmacokinetics and dosing flexibility, making it an appropriate next step.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Acetaminophen is not known to exacerbate mania and can be safely continued for mild pain management.
Choice B reason: Sam-E is a supplement that can have serotonergic activity and potentially precipitate mania in susceptible individuals, but it is not the primary agent of concern compared with bupropion in acute manic presentations.
Choice C reason: Bupropion is an activating antidepressant that can precipitate or worsen manic episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. Immediate discontinuation is indicated to prevent further exacerbation of mania.
Choice D reason: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for agitation or anxiety and does not contribute to manic symptoms; it may provide symptomatic relief and can be continued as needed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Generalized anxiety disorder involves persistent, excessive worry about multiple areas of life but does not explain the chronic pattern of inattention, disorganization, and impulsivity beginning in childhood.
Choice B reason: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), particularly the inattentive subtype, is characterized by difficulty sustaining attention, disorganization, forgetfulness, and chronic performance issues starting in childhood, consistent with this patient’s history.
Choice C reason: Specific learning disorders primarily involve difficulties with academic skills such as reading, writing, or math, rather than pervasive attentional and executive functioning problems.
Choice D reason: Bipolar disorder involves episodic mood changes, such as mania or depression, rather than persistent inattention and executive dysfunction across the lifespan.
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