A 60-year-old male client has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and chronic heart failure for many years, for which he takes hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), digoxin, and metformin. After his wife died last year, his health declined, and he was admitted to a local nursing home.
For the past 6 months, he has experienced cognitive decline, most likely due to hypoxia and/or multi-infarct dementia. The nurse referred the client to the registered dietitian nutritionist because of a 10-lb (4.5-kg) weight loss in 2 weeks, anorexia, and increasing blood glucose levels. The registered dietitian nutritionist prescribed oral supplemental feedings, and his metformin dose was increased by the primary health care provider. Today the charge nurse receives the client's latest lab work.
Based on the physical assessment findings, medical diagnoses, and lab test values, the nurse suspects that the client most likely has , which requires emergency management with
Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement by selecting from the lists of options provided.
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Choice A rationale: The lab results and clinical picture, such as weight loss, anorexia, and high blood glucose levels, point more toward a hyperglycemic state rather than severe hypoglycemia.
Choice B rationale: The client's elevated blood glucose levels, weight loss, and anorexia suggest a hyperglycemic state, possibly hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which requires fluid management and insulin to address the severe dehydration and high blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Although high glucose levels are evident, the absence of significant acidosis (as seen in diabetic ketoacidosis) and extreme ketosis makes this diagnosis less likely.
Choice D rationale: The lab values and clinical presentation do not strongly align with a primary respiratory acidosis diagnosis, which typically involves changes in pH and carbon dioxide levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: While it can be used for muscle spasms associated with musculoskeletal conditions, it's not primarily used as a first-line treatment for osteoarthritis pain and inflammation.
Choice B rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
Choice C rationale: It's a medication used for chronic pain conditions, including OA- related pain.
Choice D rationale: Often used for mild to moderate OA pain relief, it's a common medication for OA management.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: A calcium level of 8.6 mg/dL is within the normal range.
Choice B rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC) of 19,000 mm3 indicates a potential infection or inflammatory process, requiring immediate attention, especially in a client receiving peritoneal dialysis.
Choice C rationale: A serum pH of 7.33 is within the normal range.
Choice D rationale: A hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dL might indicate anemia, but in a client receiving dialysis, it might not require immediate reporting unless it significantly drops further.
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