A 61-year-old man who has achieved great success in the areas of business and community influence is frustrated that he has received a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
The man tells the nurse, "I'm not at all obese, so I don't see how this could have developed.”. When discussing the risk factors for diabetes, which of the following factors should the nurse identify? Select all that apply.
Asthma.
Age greater than 45 years.
Hypertension.
Family history.
History of angina or myocardial infarction.
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E
Choice A rationale
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease and is not recognized as a direct independent risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes. While some medications used to treat asthma, such as long-term systemic corticosteroids, can lead to secondary hyperglycemia or steroid-induced diabetes, the condition itself does not involve the metabolic pathways of insulin resistance. Therefore, a history of asthma would not be identified as a primary risk factor when discussing the etiology of diabetes with this client.
Choice B rationale
Advancing age is a significant non-modifiable risk factor for type 2 diabetes, with the risk increasing substantially after age 45. As individuals age, there is a natural decline in beta-cell function and a progressive increase in insulin resistance, often exacerbated by changes in body composition and decreased physical activity. Even in the absence of obesity, the physiological changes associated with aging make it difficult for the body to maintain glucose homeostasis, making this a relevant factor for the 61-year-old client.
Choice C rationale
Hypertension is frequently comorbid with type 2 diabetes and is a component of metabolic syndrome. Blood pressure readings ≥ 140/90 mm Hg are associated with a higher risk of developing insulin resistance. The relationship is bidirectional, as hyperinsulinemia can lead to sodium retention and sympathetic nervous system activation, further elevating blood pressure. Identifying hypertension as a risk factor helps the client understand that diabetes is often part of a broader spectrum of cardiovascular and metabolic dysfunction.
Choice D rationale
Family history remains one of the strongest predictors for the development of type 2 diabetes due to genetic predisposition. Genetic variations can affect insulin production, glucose sensing in the pancreas, and the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin. Having a first-degree relative with the condition significantly increases an individual's lifetime risk. Discussing family history helps the client move past the misconception that obesity is the sole cause, highlighting the complex interplay between genetics and metabolic health.
Choice E rationale
A history of macrovascular disease, including angina or myocardial infarction, is strongly linked to the presence of underlying insulin resistance and metabolic dysfunction. Cardiovascular disease is often considered a "diabetes equivalent" because the atherosclerotic processes and endothelial dysfunction seen in these conditions are the same mechanisms that drive diabetic complications. The presence of existing heart disease indicates that the client's metabolic environment has been compromised for some time, eventually culminating in a formal diabetes diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Early ambulation is generally encouraged after most surgical procedures to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pneumonia. However, in the specific context of a patient who has received spinal anesthesia, upright movement and walking can actually exacerbate the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the dural puncture site. This increase in leakage leads to decreased intracranial pressure, which is the primary physiological trigger for a debilitating spinal headache.
Choice B rationale
Having the patient sit in a chair involves an upright posture that increases the hydrostatic pressure of the cerebrospinal fluid at the site of the dural puncture. This pressure promotes the continued exit of fluid into the epidural space. Because the headache is caused by low spinal fluid volume, gravity-dependent positions like sitting will worsen the symptoms or prevent the puncture from sealing properly, thereby failing to prevent the development of a post-dural puncture headache.
Choice C rationale
Limiting fluids is contraindicated in the prevention of spinal headaches. Adequate hydration is essential because it supports the body's natural production of cerebrospinal fluid. Increasing fluid intake helps to compensate for the fluid lost through the dural puncture, potentially restoring intracranial pressure more quickly. Restricting fluids would likely leave the patient more susceptible to the physiological changes that result in the characteristic throbbing pain associated with a spinal headache after anesthesia.
Choice D rationale
Keeping the patient lying flat is a standard nursing intervention to prevent spinal headaches. This horizontal position reduces the pressure exerted by the cerebrospinal fluid on the dural puncture site, which minimizes further leakage into the epidural space. By maintaining a flat position, usually for several hours post-procedure, the nurse allows the puncture site to begin healing while keeping intracranial pressure stable, effectively reducing the risk of a spinal headache developing.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nystagmus, or involuntary rapid eye movements, is actually a clinical sign associated with hypomagnesemia rather than magnesium toxicity. Low magnesium levels lead to neuromuscular hyperexcitability because magnesium normally acts as a calcium channel blocker; its absence allows for increased acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction. Normal serum magnesium levels range from 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L. Since nystagmus reflects an irritable nervous system, it indicates that the magnesium deficiency has not yet been corrected or has become severe.
Choice B rationale
Kussmaul's respirations are deep, rapid, and labored breathing patterns typically seen in patients with metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis. This respiratory pattern is a compensatory mechanism to blow off excess carbon dioxide and is not a characteristic finding of hypermagnesemia. In contrast, magnesium toxicity causes central nervous system depression, leading to respiratory depression or a decreased respiratory rate rather than the hyperventilation seen in Kussmaul's. This finding would point toward a different metabolic or acid-base emergency.
Choice C rationale
Lethargy is a hallmark sign of magnesium toxicity, reflecting the sedative effect of high magnesium levels on the central nervous system. As magnesium levels rise above the normal range of 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L, the mineral acts as a potent depressant. This occurs because excess magnesium inhibits the release of neurotransmitters and reduces the sensitivity of the postsynaptic membrane. If levels continue to rise, this lethargy can progress to a loss of deep tendon reflexes, coma, and cardiac arrest.
Choice D rationale
While magnesium can affect smooth muscle motility, hypoactive bowel sounds are not the primary or definitive indicator of magnesium toxicity used in clinical monitoring. Hypermagnesemia typically causes systemic muscle weakness and vasodilation. A more classic gastrointestinal symptom of magnesium administration is diarrhea, as magnesium acts as an osmotic laxative. The nurse should prioritize assessing neurological status, deep tendon reflexes, and respiratory rate over bowel sounds when specifically monitoring for life-threatening magnesium toxicity during an active intravenous infusion.
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