A 66-year-old man with diabetes and a family history of glaucoma presents with new onset vision difficulties. Which of the following tests is commonly used as part of a comprehensive glaucoma exam?
Fluorescein angiography
Computed tomography
Slit lamp
Tonometry
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Fluorescein angiography is primarily used to assess retinal and choroidal circulation, especially in conditions like diabetic retinopathy or macular degeneration. It is not a standard test for glaucoma evaluation.
Choice B reason: Computed tomography (CT) is used for imaging the orbit or brain in cases of trauma or suspected tumors. It is not part of routine glaucoma screening or diagnosis.
Choice C reason: A slit lamp is used to examine the anterior segment of the eye, including the cornea, iris, and lens. While it is part of a comprehensive eye exam, it does not measure intraocular pressure, which is critical for glaucoma diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Tonometry measures intraocular pressure (IOP), which is a key diagnostic criterion for glaucoma. Elevated IOP is a major risk factor for optic nerve damage in glaucoma, making tonometry an essential component of the exam.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Absence of asymmetry reduces suspicion for melanoma. Malignant lesions are often asymmetric, meaning one half does not match the other. A symmetric mole is less concerning.
Choice B reason: A regular border is typical of benign lesions. Irregular, notched, or poorly defined borders raise concern for malignancy. Since the border is not irregular, this feature does not support melanoma.
Choice C reason: Color variation, especially with blue, black, or multiple tones within a single lesion, is a hallmark of malignant melanoma. Uneven pigmentation suggests abnormal melanocyte activity and warrants further evaluation.
Choice D reason: A diameter of 1 cm is borderline. Lesions larger than 6 mm (about the size of a pencil eraser) are considered suspicious, but size alone is not diagnostic. Color variation is more specific in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Schizophrenia requires symptoms to persist for at least six months, including at least one month of active-phase symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. Since the boy’s symptoms have lasted only two months, this diagnosis is premature.
Choice B reason: Brief psychotic disorder involves sudden onset of psychotic symptoms lasting more than one day but less than one month, followed by full recovery. The boy’s symptoms have persisted for two months, which exceeds the duration criteria for this diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Schizoaffective disorder includes symptoms of schizophrenia along with prominent mood episodes (either depressive or manic). There is no mention of mood symptoms in this case, making schizoaffective disorder unlikely.
Choice D reason: Schizophreniform disorder is diagnosed when symptoms of schizophrenia are present for more than one month but less than six months. The boy’s delusions, social withdrawal, and communication difficulties over two months fit this timeframe, making this the most appropriate diagnosis.
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