A 72-year-old female has a history of right heart failure caused by a right ventricular myocardial infarction. Which of the following symptoms are specifically related to her right heart failure?
Hypertension
Dyspnea upon exertion
Significant edema to both lo
Decreased urine output
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is not a symptom of right heart failure. Hypertension is a risk factor for developing heart failure, but it does not indicate the severity or location of the heart failure.
Choice B reason: This is not a symptom of right heart failure. Dyspnea upon exertion is a symptom of left heart failure, which occurs when the left ventricle fails to pump blood effectively to the lungs.
Choice C reason: This is a symptom of right heart failure. Significant edema to both lower legs and feet is a result of increased pressure in the systemic circulation, which occurs when the right ventricle fails to pump blood effectively to the rest of the body. This causes fluid to accumulate in the dependent areas, such as the lower extremities.
Choice D reason: This is not a symptom of right heart failure. Decreased urine output is a symptom of left heart failure, which occurs when the left ventricle fails to pump blood effectively to the aorta and the rest of the body. This causes reduced renal perfusion and oliguria.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Cool extremities are a sign of poor peripheral perfusion, which can be caused by vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
Choice B reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Increased urinary output is a sign of diuresis, which can be caused by diuretic medications, not vasodilators.
Choice C reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Pale skin is a sign of reduced blood flow to the skin, which can be caused by vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
Choice D reason: This is a physiological response to hydralazine. Reflex tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism that occurs when the blood pressure drops due to vasodilation. The heart rate increases to maintain the cardiac output and perfusion pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not a correct statement. LABAs stand for long-acting beta2-agonists, which are a class of medications that relax the smooth muscles of the airways and improve the airflow in patients with asthma or COPD. However, LABAs do not reduce the risk of asthma-related deaths, and may even increase it if used alone without an inhaled glucocorticoid, which is a type of anti-inflammatory medication.
Choice B reason: This is not a correct statement. LABAs cannot be used on an as-needed basis to treat symptoms, as they have a slow onset of action and a long duration of effect. LABAs are meant to be used as a maintenance therapy to prevent asthma exacerbations, not to relieve acute symptoms. For quick relief of symptoms, patients should use a short-acting beta2-agonist, such as albuterol or salbutamol.
Choice C reason: This is not a correct statement. LABAs are not safer than short-acting beta2 agonists, as they have similar side effects, such as tachycardia, tremors, and hypokalemia. LABAs also have a black box warning that they may increase the risk of asthma-related deaths if used without an inhaled glucocorticoid.
Choice D reason: This is the correct statement. LABAs should be combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid, as this combination has been shown to improve the asthma control, reduce the frequency and severity of exacerbations, and decrease the inflammation and airway hyperresponsiveness. The inhaled glucocorticoid also reduces the risk of adverse effects and mortality associated with LABAs.
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