A client asks the nurse at a prenatal appointment for a list of non-dairy foods that contain calcium so that she can incorporate them into her diet during pregnancy.
Which of the following are non-dairy calcium foods that the client could eat?
Yogurt, nuts, and legumes.
Yogurt, milk, and starchy vegetables.
Nuts, legumes, and starchy vegetables.
Fortified orange juice, salmon with bones, and collard greens.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
While nuts and legumes are good sources of non-dairy calcium, yogurt is a dairy product. The client is specifically asking for a list of non-dairy foods. Therefore, this choice is incorrect because it includes a dairy product.
Choice B rationale
Both yogurt and milk are dairy products, and therefore do not align with the client's request for non-dairy calcium sources. Starchy vegetables do contain some calcium, but this choice is incorrect due to the inclusion of dairy.
Choice C rationale
Nuts, legumes, and starchy vegetables all contain some calcium. However, this choice does not represent the most calcium-rich non-dairy options available, and other choices provide a more complete and accurate list of excellent non-dairy sources.
Choice D rationale
Fortified orange juice, salmon with bones (e.g., canned salmon), and collard greens are all excellent sources of non-dairy calcium. This combination provides a variety of food types that can be incorporated into the diet to meet increased calcium needs during pregnancy. *.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uterine tachysystole is correctly defined as more than five contractions in ten minutes, averaged over a thirty-minute period. However, magnesium sulfate is not the initial intervention. Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia and to a lesser extent as a tocolytic, but not for tachysystole management. The primary interventions involve non-pharmacological methods and reducing uterine stimulants.
Choice B rationale
Hypotonic contractions are characterized by a low frequency (fewer than 3 contractions in 10 minutes) and intensity. Terbutaline, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, is used to inhibit uterine contractions and is indicated for tachysystole, not hypotonic contractions. Therefore, this choice misidentifies the condition and provides an inappropriate intervention for hypotonic labor.
Choice C rationale
This choice incorrectly defines tachysystole as less than three contractions in ten minutes. This description actually aligns with hypotonic uterine dysfunction. The intervention of increasing oxytocin is aimed at stimulating labor in cases of hypotonic dysfunction, not at resolving tachysystole which is caused by excessive uterine activity.
Choice D rationale
This statement accurately defines uterine tachysystole as more than five contractions in ten minutes over a thirty-minute period. The initial intervention for this condition is to discontinue or reduce any uterine stimulants, such as oxytocin, and to reposition the patient to improve uteroplacental perfusion. This is done to prevent fetal distress due to reduced oxygen delivery from persistent uterine contractions. *.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While any serious maternal infection or complication can theoretically increase the risk of adverse pregnancy outcomes, including miscarriage, HSV infection is not a primary risk factor for spontaneous abortion. The greatest risk associated with HSV in pregnancy is the transmission of the virus to the neonate, particularly during vaginal birth. Miscarriage is more commonly linked to chromosomal abnormalities, uterine factors, or other maternal health conditions. The focus of care in HSV is preventing perinatal transmission.
Choice B rationale
Maternal pain and discomfort associated with a herpes simplex virus (HSV) outbreak are indeed a concern for the pregnant woman. The lesions can be painful and distressing. However, from a medical and fetal health perspective, this is not the greatest concern. The pain and discomfort are temporary and can be managed with supportive care. The potential for serious, life-threatening consequences for the newborn far outweighs the maternal symptoms.
Choice C rationale
The greatest concern regarding maternal herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is the potential for transmission to the newborn during delivery, especially if the mother has an active primary genital outbreak. Neonatal herpes is a serious and potentially fatal condition that can lead to disseminated disease, central nervous system involvement, or skin, eye, and mouth disease. The risk is highest with a primary infection near term, as the mother has not yet developed protective antibodies to pass to the fetus. A cesarean section is often recommended if active lesions are present.
Choice D rationale
The development of oral cold sores, caused by HSV-1, is generally not the primary concern in the context of pregnancy. While oral HSV can be transmitted to a newborn, the risk is typically much lower and the consequences less severe than with genital HSV transmission during delivery. The focus of concern for maternal-fetal health is primarily on genital herpes outbreaks, particularly a primary infection at the time of delivery, due to the high risk of severe neonatal morbidity and mortality
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