A client has not been to work in three days. When she returns to work, she is wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises are visible. Her supervisor takes her to the occupational nurse. Which assessment is the priority for the nurse?
physical injuries
coping mechanisms
emotional distress
psychological trauma
The Correct Answer is A
Intimate partner violence involves a pattern of coercive behaviors used to maintain power and control over another individual. Clinical assessment must focus on biopsychosocial stabilization, where the nurse identifies physical markers of abuse such as ecchymosis or fractures, while evaluating for immediate lethality and the presence of a safety plan.
Rationale:
A. The nurse must prioritize the physiological integrity of the client according to Maslow's hierarchy. Assessing physical injuries ensures that life-threatening conditions, such as intracranial hemorrhage or internal bleeding indicated by facial bruising, are identified and treated before addressing the client's psychological needs.
B. Evaluating a client's coping mechanisms is a vital component of a long-term psychiatric assessment. However, in the acute phase of a potential physical assault, determining how the client manages stress is secondary to ensuring they are medically stable and free from somatic danger.
C. Emotional distress is a common sequela of trauma and must be addressed with therapeutic communication. In the initial nursing assessment, however, the priority is the stabilization of physical health, as untreated bodily injuries pose a more immediate threat to the client’s survival than emotional discomfort.
D. Psychological trauma is a complex neuropsychological response to an overwhelming event. Although the nurse will eventually screen for trauma and its effects, the immediate assessment must focus on the "A-B-C" (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and physical trauma indicators to prevent further medical deterioration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder (often involving dyspareunia or vaginismus) requires a comprehensive diagnostic approach that bridges the physical and psychological domains. In cases involving a history of sexual trauma, the clinician must address the somatic manifestation of psychological distress while ensuring that treatable medical conditions are not overlooked. The diagnostic priority is to establish whether the pain is purely psychogenic, physiological, or a combination of both (biopsychosocial).
Rationale:
A. Evaluating the client's understanding of the disorder is an educational intervention that occurs after a diagnosis has been established. While patient education is vital for treatment adherence, it does not assist the clinical team in the initial phase of identifying the root cause of the client's physical symptoms.
B. It is highly appropriate to screen a survivor of sexual assault for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), but this is not the first step in diagnosing a specific pain disorder. PTSD and pain disorders are often comorbid, but the presence of one does not automatically confirm the nature or origin of the physical pain reported.
C. Journaling is a therapeutic technique used in the treatment and recovery phase to process trauma. However, as a diagnostic tool, it is subjective and does not provide the objective clinical data needed to confirm a diagnosis. Emotional processing should follow the medical stabilization and diagnostic clarity of the physical symptoms.
D. Ruling out a physical cause is the mandatory first step in confirming any psychosomatic or pain-related psychiatric diagnosis. The nurse and physician must ensure the pain is not caused by infections, hormonal imbalances, endometriosis, or physical trauma from the original assault that may require surgical or medical intervention. Once organic pathology is excluded, the team can confidently pursue a psychological diagnosis and treatment plan.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Eating disorders represent a complex psychopathology involving distorted body image and maladaptive weight-control behaviors. These conditions often involve neuroendocrine dysregulation and significant physiological disturbances, where the individual's sense of self-worth becomes inextricably linked to caloric restriction or compensatory purging cycles.
Rationale:
A. Ego-syntonic behavior is a hallmark of anorexia, where the client views their restriction as a sign of strength and mastery. Conversely, bulimia is often ego-dystonic, meaning the client feels remorse and intense guilt regarding their binge-purge cycles, often hiding their behaviors due to significant social stigma.
B. Both disorders have a multifactorial etiology involving complex interactions between genetics and environment. Biological markers like serotonin levels are implicated in both, but neither disorder is strictly limited to a single origin; they both possess deep psychosocial and biological roots.
C. Although both involve a preoccupation with weight, the clinical presentations and psychological motivations differ significantly. Anorexia is characterized by extreme emaciation and refusal to maintain a minimum body weight, whereas bulimia often involves clients who maintain a relatively normal or fluctuating weight range.
D. Both conditions carry a high risk of mortality due to medical complications or suicide. Anorexia has the highest death rate of any psychiatric disorder due to starvation or cardiac collapse, while bulimia poses immediate risks like electrolyte imbalances and esophageal rupture from frequent emesis.
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