A client in the operating room begins to experience cardiac arrhythmia and muscular rigidity. The nurse notes that the client is breathing rapidly, their oxygen saturation is dropping, and their temperature is rising. After discontinuing the triggering agent, what is the priority nursing action?
Alert the surgical unit of the adverse reaction
Administer naloxone intranasally
Administer dantrolene sodium intravenously
Infuse sterile ice water via nasogastric tube
The Correct Answer is C
A. Alerting the surgical unit is a secondary administrative task that should occur only after life-saving interventions have been initiated. The client is experiencing malignant hyperthermia, a hypermetabolic crisis that requires immediate physiological stabilization to prevent multi-organ failure and death. The nurse must prioritize direct clinical actions over notification of other departments during the acute phase of this anesthesia-related emergency.
B. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory depression caused by narcotic overdose and has no therapeutic effect on the pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia. This condition is triggered by volatile gaseous anesthetics or succinylcholine, which cause an uncontrolled release of calcium in skeletal muscle. Administering naloxone would waste critical time and fail to address the underlying muscular rigidity and hyperpyrexia.
C. Administering dantrolene sodium intravenously is the definitive treatment for malignant hyperthermia as it acts directly on the ryanodine receptors to inhibit calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This action halts the sustained muscle contraction and hypermetabolic state, effectively lowering the temperature and stabilizing the heart rhythm. The nurse must prioritize the preparation and rapid administration of this medication to ensure the client's survival.
D. While active cooling measures such as infusing cold fluids are part of the management for malignant hyperthermia, they are considered supportive rather than definitive therapy. Cooling alone will not stop the intracellular calcium storm that is driving the crisis. The priority remains the administration of the specific antagonist, dantrolene, while cooling measures are implemented concurrently by other members of the surgical team.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A.Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are an essential intervention for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism in the postoperative client. However, these mechanical devices do not have a direct impact on the inflammatory response or the microbial colonization of a surgical wound. While they improve venous return, they are not a primary strategy for reducing the specific risk of surgical site infections.
B.Maintaining an oxygen saturation greater than 95% ensures that the tissues around the surgical incision receive adequate oxygenation to support the oxidative killing of bacteria by neutrophils. Hyperoxygenation during the perioperative period has been clinically shown to enhance collagen synthesis and strengthen the primary immune response at the wound site. This intervention is a recognized evidence-based practice for decreasing the incidence of postoperative infectious complications.
C.Allowing a client's body temperature to drop below 97 degrees F, or inadvertent perioperative hypothermia, is actually a major risk factor for surgical site infection. Hypothermia causes peripheral vasoconstriction, which impairs oxygen delivery to the wound and suppresses the function of immune cells. The nurse must prioritize maintaining normothermia, typically above 98.6 degrees F, to preserve effective cutaneous blood flow and immune competence during and after surgery.
D.Administering postoperative antibiotics for 48 to 72 hours is generally discouraged as it does not provide additional protection against infection and may contribute to antibiotic resistance. Current clinical guidelines recommend that prophylactic antibiotics be discontinued within 24 hours after surgery for most procedures. The nurse should focus on the timely administration of the preoperative dose rather than extending therapy beyond the period of maximum surgical contamination risk.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.A urine specific gravity of 1.038 is significantly elevated above the normal physiological range of 1.005 to 1.030. This finding indicates that the urine remains highly concentrated, suggesting that the kidneys are still conserving water due to a continued state of fluid volume deficit. Effective rehydration would result in a lower, more dilute specific gravity as the circulating volume and renal perfusion normalize.
B.A urine output of 25 mL/hour is below the standard clinical threshold of 30 mL/hour, which is the minimum required to ensure adequate organ perfusion and metabolic waste excretion. Persistent oliguria indicates that the compensatory mechanisms for dehydration are still active and that the fluid resuscitation has not yet achieved hemodynamic stability. The nurse should continue to monitor and potentially escalate fluid therapy until output meets or exceeds 30 mL/hour.
C.A mean arterial pressure of 58 mmHg is critically low and insufficient to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs, particularly the brain and kidneys. Normal mean arterial pressure should be maintained at 65 mmHg or higher to ensure systemic homeostasis. This hypotensive value suggests that the client is still experiencing a significant volume deficit or is potentially progressing toward hypovolemic shock despite the current IV fluid replacement.
D.A heart rate of 88 beats/minute falls within the normal adult reference range of 60 to 100 beats/minute. Dehydration typically causes compensatory tachycardia as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output in the presence of decreased stroke volume. The normalization of the heart rate is a reliable indicator that the intravascular volume has been restored and the sympathetic nervous system's compensatory drive has decreased.
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