A client is brought to the emergency department for unrelieved chest pain for 45 minutes. ECG performed by EMS suspects a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). Which of the following interventions is most important?
Apply oxygen, administer morphine, and place the client on bed rest with cardiac monitoring.
Have the client chew two aspirin 325 mg each, administer oxygen and bring the crash cart to the bedside.
Administer oxygen, give a dose of nitroglycerin sublingual, and follow with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory.
Begin a heparin drip, administer oxygen, and call the lab for stat troponin levels.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Apply oxygen, administer morphine, and place the client on bed rest with cardiac monitoring: These interventions prioritize reducing myocardial oxygen demand and alleviating ischemic pain in the acute phase of NSTEMI. Morphine acts as a potent analgesic and vasodilator, while oxygen improves tissue saturation. Bed rest and continuous monitoring ensure hemodynamic stability and rapid detection of dysrhythmias.
B. Have the client chew two aspirin 325 mg each, administer oxygen and bring the crash cart to the bedside: While aspirin is indicated for its antiplatelet effects, a dose of 650 mg exceeds the standard loading dose of 162 to 325 mg. Administering excessive aspirin increases the risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage without providing additional cardiac benefit. The crash cart is necessary but secondary to immediate pharmacological stabilization.
C. Administer oxygen, give a dose of nitroglycerin sublingual, and follow with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, excluding aspirin, are contraindicated in acute myocardial infarction because they increase the risk of myocardial rupture and mortality. Nitroglycerin helps with vasodilation, but the addition of an NSAID is harmful. This combination fails to provide the necessary sedation and potent analgesia required.
D. Begin a heparin drip, administer oxygen, and call the lab for stat troponin levels: Heparin and troponin levels are essential components of NSTEMI management but do not address the client's immediate, unrelieved pain. Anticoagulation prevents further thrombus formation but does not actively reduce the current ischemic workload. Immediate nursing priorities must focus on symptomatic relief and cardiac workload reduction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. Distended jugular veins: Right-sided failure increases pressure in the right atrium and vena cava, leading to visible engorgement of the internal jugular veins. This finding reflects the retrograde backup of blood into the systemic venous system. It is a primary clinical indicator of elevated central venous pressure.
B. Weight gain: Rapid increase in body mass in heart failure patients is almost exclusively due to the retention of sodium and water. As the kidneys perceive low perfusion, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system triggers fluid volume expansion. This leads to the systemic accumulation of fluid characteristic of right-sided dysfunction.
C. Orthopnea: This symptom involves difficulty breathing while lying flat and is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure and pulmonary congestion. It occurs when fluid from the lower extremities redistributes to the lungs in a recumbent position. Right-sided failure alone does not typically cause this pulmonary-specific symptom.
D. Peripheral edema: Increased systemic venous pressure causes fluid to leak from the capillaries into the interstitial spaces of the lower extremities. This presents as swelling in the feet, ankles, and pretibial areas, often worsening as the day progresses. It is a hallmark sign of right-heart pump failure.
E. Crackles the lungs: Adventitious lung sounds like crackles indicate fluid in the alveoli, which is a manifestation of pulmonary edema. Pulmonary edema is caused by the failure of the left ventricle to move blood into the systemic circulation. It is not a direct finding of isolated right-sided heart failure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "I will notify my doctor if my urine output increases after a few doses.": Diuresis is the intended pharmacological outcome for a patient with heart failure receiving loop diuretics. Increased urinary frequency and volume indicate that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Reporting this expected finding would be an unnecessary use of clinical resources.
B. "I will not eat my usual banana with my breakfast cereal in the morning.": Furosemide promotes the excretion of potassium in the distal tubule and the loop of Henle. Bananas are a high-potassium food that helps prevent the development of hypokalemia during diuretic therapy. Restricting dietary potassium while taking a non-potassium-sparing diuretic increases the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
C. "I will need to change positions slowly when going from laying down to sitting and then sitting to standing.": Rapid fluid volume reduction and vasodilation can lead to a significant drop in blood pressure upon standing. This orthostatic hypotension increases the risk of falls and syncope in older adult patients. Gradual transitions allow the body's baroreceptors to adjust and maintain adequate cerebral perfusion.
D. "I will take my furosemide with a full glass of water just before bed time.": Administering loop diuretics in the evening results in nocturia, which disrupts the patient's sleep cycle and increases fall risks at night. Medication should be taken in the morning to allow for peak diuresis during waking hours. Timing the dose correctly is essential for maintaining patient safety and quality of life.
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