A client presents with chest pain and an ECG shows ST-segment elevation in two adjoining leads. What does this indicate regarding the client's condition?
The client is experiencing stable angina.
The client is experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI).
The client likely has a first-degree atrioventricular block.
The client is likely exhibiting signs of recovery from an old myocardial infarction.
The Correct Answer is B
ST-segment changes on an electrocardiogram (ECG) are critical indicators of myocardial oxygenation status. ST-segment elevation in two or more contiguous leads is a hallmark finding of acute myocardial infarction, specifically ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). This reflects complete or near-complete occlusion of a coronary artery, leading to ongoing myocardial ischemia and necrosis. Prompt recognition and rapid intervention are essential to restore perfusion and limit myocardial damage.
Rationale:
A. Stable angina is characterized by transient chest pain that is typically relieved with rest or nitroglycerin and does not produce persistent ECG changes. ST-segment elevation is not a feature of stable angina. Instead, stable angina is associated with reversible myocardial ischemia without permanent tissue damage.
B. ST-segment elevation in two adjoining leads indicates an acute myocardial infarction, specifically a STEMI. This finding reflects transmural ischemia due to complete coronary artery occlusion, leading to myocardial cell death if not rapidly treated. Immediate reperfusion therapy is required to restore blood flow and limit cardiac damage.
C. A first-degree atrioventricular block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval on ECG, not ST-segment elevation. It is generally a benign conduction delay that does not indicate acute myocardial ischemia. Therefore, it is unrelated to the acute presentation described.
D. Recovery from an old myocardial infarction is typically associated with Q-wave changes rather than acute ST-segment elevation. ST elevation suggests an active, ongoing ischemic process rather than a resolved or healed event. Thus, this finding is inconsistent with a past MI recovery phase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Cerebral edema involves increased intracranial pressure due to fluid accumulation within brain tissues, which can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and neurological deterioration. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the intravascular space for renal excretion. Because mannitol can crystallize at room temperature, proper preparation and safety checks are essential before IV administration to prevent harm and ensure therapeutic effectiveness.
Rationale:
A. Checking for crystallization in the mannitol solution is essential before administration because mannitol can form crystals when stored at low temperatures. Infusing crystallized solution can cause catheter occlusion or embolization. If crystals are present, the solution should be warmed or filtered before use to ensure safe administration.
B. Administering mannitol rapidly over 10 minutes is unsafe unless specifically prescribed, as rapid infusion can cause sudden fluid shifts and cardiovascular overload. Mannitol should be administered at the prescribed controlled rate to prevent complications such as pulmonary edema, hypotension, or electrolyte imbalance. Proper infusion timing is critical to avoid adverse hemodynamic effects.
C. Ensuring systolic blood pressure is below 100 mm Hg is not a required pre-administration parameter for mannitol. While blood pressure monitoring is important due to the risk of fluid shifts and osmotic diuresis, the drug is not contraindicated based solely on systolic pressure thresholds. The focus is on intracranial pressure reduction rather than strict blood pressure limits.
D. Administering mannitol with food to improve absorption is incorrect because mannitol is given intravenously, not orally. Food intake has no effect on its absorption or pharmacologic action. Its therapeutic effect depends entirely on controlled IV infusion and its osmotic movement across the blood-brain barrier.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
Acute stroke management follows evidence-based core measures aimed at improving outcomes, reducing complications, and preventing recurrence. These measures include timely reperfusion therapy, prevention of venous thromboembolism (VTE), appropriate antithrombotic management, and patient education. Early implementation of standardized stroke protocols improves survival and functional recovery. Nursing care plays a central role in ensuring adherence to these time-sensitive and guideline-driven interventions.
Rationale:
A. Delaying rehabilitation assessments until after discharge is incorrect because early rehabilitation evaluation is an essential component of stroke care. Early mobilization and assessment help reduce complications such as contractures, pressure injuries, and functional decline. Rehabilitation planning begins during hospitalization to improve recovery outcomes.
B. Reevaluating antithrombotic therapy on hospital day 2 is appropriate because stroke management includes reassessment of antiplatelet or anticoagulant therapy based on stroke type and clinical progression. This ensures optimal prevention of recurrent cerebrovascular events while balancing bleeding risk. Adjustments are made according to diagnostic findings and patient response.
C. Documenting stroke education for the client is a core measure because patient and family education is essential for secondary prevention. Education includes risk factor modification, medication adherence, and recognition of stroke warning signs. Proper documentation ensures continuity of care and confirms that discharge teaching has been completed.
D. Increasing the dosage of anticoagulants immediately is not a core stroke measure and may be unsafe without proper evaluation. Anticoagulant therapy must be carefully individualized based on stroke type (ischemic vs hemorrhagic) and bleeding risk. Empiric dose escalation could increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
E. Providing VTE prophylaxis is a key core measure because stroke clients are at high risk for immobility-related complications such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Interventions may include pharmacologic prophylaxis (e.g., low-dose heparin) and mechanical devices like sequential compression devices. This reduces morbidity and mortality during hospitalization.
F. Administering thrombolytic therapy as indicated is a critical acute stroke intervention for eligible clients with ischemic stroke. Timely administration of thrombolytics such as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) can restore cerebral perfusion and minimize neurologic damage. This treatment must be given within a strict therapeutic time window and after exclusion of hemorrhagic stroke.
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