A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Intracerebral hemorrhage.
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
Meningococcal meningitis.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Rocky Mountain spotted fever is not the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks that causes a distinctive rash that usually begins on the wrists and ankles and spreads to the rest of the body. The rash is not limited to the arms and legs, and the client may also have other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and muscle aches.
Choice B reason: Intracerebral hemorrhage is not the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. Intracerebral hemorrhage is a type of stroke that occurs when a blood vessel bursts inside the brain, causing bleeding and swelling. The rash is not a typical sign of intracerebral hemorrhage, and the client may also have other symptoms such as weakness, numbness, vision loss, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
Choice C reason: Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is not the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. CVA is another term for stroke, which occurs when the blood supply to a part of the brain is interrupted, causing brain tissue damage. The rash is not a common sign of CVA, and the client may also have other symptoms such as facial drooping, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, paralysis, and cognitive impairment.
Choice D reason: Meningococcal meningitis is the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. Meningococcal meningitis is a bacterial infection that causes inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. The rash is a characteristic sign of meningococcal meningitis, which can appear as small red or purple spots that do not fade when pressed. The client may also have other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, confusion, and seizures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Presenting a calm, supportive demeanor is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should use a soothing tone of voice, maintain eye contact, and avoid arguing or challenging the client's perceptions. This can help reduce the client's agitation and promote trust.
Choice B reason: Reorienting to day and time frequently is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should provide reality-based information and reminders about the client's situation, such as the reason for hospitalization, the name of the nurse, and the expected plan of care. This can help the client regain a sense of orientation and control.
Choice C reason: Administering an as needed (PRN) dose of lorazepam is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can reduce anxiety, agitation, and psychotic symptoms by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, level of sedation, and risk of falls after giving the medication.
Choice D reason: Turning the television on for distraction is not an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The television can increase the sensory stimulation and confusion for the client, and may worsen the hallucinations or delusions. The nurse should provide a quiet and safe environment for the client.
Choice E reason: Applying soft wrist restraints bilaterally is not an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Restraints can increase the anxiety and agitation for the client, and may cause physical or psychological harm. The nurse should use restraints only as a last resort when other less restrictive measures have failed to protect the client or others from harm.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is correct because performing a bedside pregnancy test is the intervention that should be implemented immediately by the nurse. This is to confirm or rule out pregnancy and inform the surgical team of any possible risks or complications that may affect the client or the fetus.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because continuing with surgery as scheduled is not an appropriate intervention without verifying the pregnancy status of the client. Surgery may pose serious threats to both maternal and fetal health, such as bleeding, infection, anesthesia complications, or miscarriage.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because calculating gestation from last menstrual cycle is not an accurate or reliable method of determining pregnancy. The menstrual cycle can vary widely among women and may be affected by various factors such as stress, illness, or medication.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because notifying the surgical team to cancel the surgery is not a necessary intervention unless pregnancy is confirmed. Appendicitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt surgical treatment to prevent rupture, peritonitis, or sepsis.
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