A client who has bipolar disorder approaches the nurse and reveals fresh, self-inflicted, superficial cuts going up and down his right arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Implement the client's behavioral modification plan
Document the size and location of the cuts
Administer a tetanus antitoxin.
inspect the cuts for debris
The Correct Answer is D
A. Implement the client's behavioral modification plan:
While addressing the client's behavioral modification plan is important, it may not be the immediate priority when the client has self-inflicted cuts. Ensuring physical safety and assessing the extent of the injury take precedence.
B. Document the size and location of the cuts:
Documentation is important, but it is not the first action to be taken. The immediate concern is to assess the physical condition of the cuts and address any potential risks.
C. Administer a tetanus antitoxin:
Administering a tetanus antitoxin may be necessary depending on the nature and depth of the cuts. However, it is not the first action. First, a thorough inspection of the cuts is needed to determine the appropriate course of action.
D. Inspect the cuts for debris:
This is the most appropriate first action. Inspecting the cuts for debris helps determine the severity of the wounds and whether there is a risk of infection. It also allows the nurse to assess the need for further medical intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Risperidone (Risperdal):
Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic and generally has a lower propensity for causing anticholinergic side effects compared to typical antipsychotics.
B. Lithium (Lithobid):
Lithium is a mood stabilizer used primarily for bipolar disorder and does not typically cause anticholinergic side effects.
C. Buspirone (Buspar):
Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication and does not have significant anticholinergic properties. It tends to have fewer side effects compared to other medications used for anxiety.
D. Fluphenazine (Prolixin):
Fluphenazine is a typical antipsychotic medication and belongs to the phenothiazine class, which is known to have notable anticholinergic effects. These effects can include dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention, and cognitive impairment.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Allow the client to pace alone until physically tired: While pacing can be a coping mechanism, leaving the client alone may not be the most therapeutic approach. It is important for the nurse to provide support and assess the client's emotional state.
B. Walk with the client at a gradually slower pace: This is the correct answer. Walking with the client at a gradually slower pace allows the nurse to offer support and engage in therapeutic communication. It provides a calming presence and can assist the client in self-regulating their anxiety.
C. Have a staff member escort the client to her room: Escorting the client to her room might be perceived as restrictive or punitive. It is generally more beneficial to engage in supportive interventions and encourage coping strategies.
D. Instruct the client to sit down and stop pacing: Giving direct orders to stop pacing may increase anxiety and may not be an effective approach. It is often better to engage in a supportive manner and explore ways to help the client manage their anxiety.
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