A client who is anovulatory and has hyperprolactinemia is undergoing infertility treatment with metformin, menotropins, and human chorionic gonadotropin.
What side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?

Episodes of headache and irritability.

Persistent daytime fatigue.

Nausea and vomiting.

Rapid increase in abdominal girth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

While episodes of headache and irritability can occur as side effects of metformin and menotropins, they are not typically severe enough to warrant immediate reporting.

Choice B rationale

Persistent daytime fatigue can be a side effect of these medications, but it is also a common symptom in pregnancy and is not typically a cause for immediate concern.

Choice C rationale

Nausea and vomiting can occur as side effects of these medications. However, they are common side effects and are not typically a cause for immediate concern unless they are severe or persistent.

Choice D rationale

A rapid increase in abdominal girth can be a sign of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, a rare but potentially serious side effect of fertility treatments. This condition can cause rapid weight gain, abdominal pain, and bloating, and should be reported immediately.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["50"]

Explanation

To calculate the rate at which the infusion pump should be set, we need to determine how many mL of the solution contain 2 grams of magnesium sulfate.

Step 1: First, we find out how many grams of magnesium sulfate are in 1 mL of the solution. The IV bag contains 20 grams of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL, so we divide 20 grams by 500 mL to get the amount of magnesium sulfate per mL: 20 grams ÷ 500 mL = 0.04 grams/mL

Step 2: Next, we find out how many mL contain 2 grams of magnesium sulfate.

We divide 2 grams by the amount of magnesium sulfate per mL: 2 grams ÷ 0.04 grams/mL = 50 mL Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver 50 mL per hour.

A. Review the pattern of the fetal heart rate. B. Check the client’s bladder. C. Determine the dilation of the cervix. D. Test the pH of the vaginal fluid.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is Choice C.

Choice A rationale: Reviewing the pattern of the fetal heart rate is important but not the immediate first step when a client in active labor needs to use the restroom. The nurse should first assess the progress of labor.

Choice B rationale: Checking the client's bladder is necessary, especially if the bladder is full, as it can affect labor progress. However, the priority is to assess the cervix first to ensure the client is not in an advanced stage of labor before addressing bladder concerns.

Choice C rationale: Determining the dilation of the cervix is crucial. The need to use the restroom may indicate increased pressure from the presenting part of the fetus, suggesting rapid labor progression. This assessment will help determine if it is safe for the client to ambulate to the restroom or if other immediate actions are needed.

Choice D rationale: Testing the pH of the vaginal fluid can be part of assessing for the presence of amniotic fluid, but it is not the first step when a client in active labor expresses the need to use the restroom. Cervical assessment takes priority in this situation.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client who is anovulatory and has hyperprolactinemia is undergoing infertility treatment with metformin, menotropins, and human chorionic gonadotropin.What side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["50"]

Explanation

The nurse is assessing a client who has been admitted in active labor. The cervix is dilated to 3 cm, 50% effaced, and the presenting part is at 0 station. An hour later, the client informs the nurse that she needs to use the restroom. What should be the nurse’s first course of action?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic reporting a low-grade fever, moderate cramping, and heavy bright-red bleeding.What advice should the nurse give the client?

The nurse is caring for a client who is 10-weeks gestation and palpates the fundus at 2 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis.The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take?

What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

The nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate to a laboring client whose blood pressure has risen from 110/60 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg.Which nursing protocol is of the highest priority?

A client at 32 weeks gestation visits the women’s health clinic and reports feeling nauseous and vomiting. Upon examination, the nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure is elevated.What should the nurse do next?

The nurse is about to administer phytonadione to a newborn.Which statement by the parents shows they understand why this medication is being given?

During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn’s scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?

A neonate, who is one day old, develops a cephalhematoma.Which common complication should the nurse assess this neonate for?

A client who is anovulatory and has hyperprolactinemia is undergoing infertility treatment with metformin, menotropins, and human chorionic gonadotropin.
What side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?